NEET REVISION TEST 7 (18.02.2026) -

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST 7 (18.02.2026)

Name

ZZR ID NUMBER

PHYSICS

1. For the given cycle, the work done during the isobaric process is:

1. 200 J
2. zero
3. 400 J
4. 600 JDeselect Answer

None

2. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a period of √3s. If it is completely immersed in non-viscous liquid, having density (1/4)^th of the material of the bob, the new period will be:

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None

3. Two different photosensitive materials have work function ∅ and 2∅ respectively, are illuminated with light of sufficient energy to emit electrons. If the graph of stopping potential versus frequency is drawn, for these two different photosensitive materials, the ratio of the slope of the graph for these two materials is:

1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:4
4. 4:1

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None

4. A pair of blocks of mass m, each, are connected by a light spring of stiffness k. The spring is compressed by x₀ and the left block (A) is pressed against a vertical wall; the system resting on a smooth horizontal plane. The right block (B) is now released. The impulse delivered by the normal force of the wall (on block A), till the spring reaches its natural length, is:

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None

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None

6. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is:

1. 2 × 10⁶ N-m
2. 2 × 10^-6 N-m
3. 2 × 10^-3 N-m
4. 2 × 10^-4 N-m

Deselect Answer

None

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None

8. Three charged particles are in equilibrium under their electrostatic forces only. Consider the following statements:
(A) The particles must be collinear.
(B) All the charges cannot have the same magnitude.
(C) All the charges cannot have the same sign.
(D) The equilibrium is unstable.
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

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None

9. Two, very long parallel wires carry equal currents in opposite directions and are separated by a distance d. The magnetic energy density due to the field of the wires, at a point midway between them is u. The force per unit length acting between the wires is:

1. πdu
2. 2πdu
3. πdu/2
4. πdu/4

Deselect Answer

None

10. A train, with an axle length of 1.5 m, is moving on a level track, at 72 km/h. The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is 4 × 10^-5 .The emf induced across the axle is:

1. zero
2. 4.32 × 10^-3 V
3. 1.2 × 10^-3 V
4. 2.4 × 10^-2 V

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None

11. If two rods, of identical dimensions but made of materials with conductivity K₁ and K₂, are placed end-to-end, the combination behaves as a single rod of (effective) conductivity K. Then, K satisfies:

Deselect Answer

None

12. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Work done in moving a charge along the equatorial line of an electric dipole from the centre of the dipole through a distance equal to the length of the dipole is zero.
Reason (R): The Equatorial line of the electric dipole lies on the equipotential surface.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

13. The loss in weight of a lead block is 3 times in liquid A compared to that in liquid B. In both cases, the block is half immersed. If p_A, p_B be the densities of the liquids and p_L the density of lead, then:

1. 3_PA = p_B2. 3/2 p_A = p_B3. p_A = 3/2 p_B4. p_A = 3 p_B

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None

14. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the material is:

1. 4 × 10¹⁵ Hz
2. 5 × 10¹⁵ Hz
3. 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz
4. 2.5 × 10¹⁵ Hz

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None

15. A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC source with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the inductance is 100 mH, what capacitance is required for resonance? (use π² = 10)

1. 1 μF
2. 10 μF
3. 100 μF
4. 1000 μF

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None

16. A freely rotatable turntable of moment of inertia I = 10 SI units lies at rest. A flat rotating disc, rotating with an angular speed of 15 radian/s, and having a moment of inertia of 5 SI units is placed on it coaxially. Due to friction, the two rotate together, after some time. The final angular speed of the system is:

1. 10 radian/s
2. 5 radian/s
3. 7.5 radian/s
4. 2.5 radian/s

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None

17. A charge Q is placed at the centre of a thin spherical shell of radius R. An electron is moved from point A to point B (see figure). The total work done will be:

Deselect Answer

None

18. The length of a magnetized iron bar is L and its magnetic moment is M. When this bar is bent to form a semi-circle its magnetic moment is:

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None

19. In the circuit shown in the diagram, the resistance r is unknown but fixed. The EMF can be varied and the current () passing through the ammeter () can be measured in magnitude only.

When the EMF E is negligible (i.e. practically zero) the ammeter reading will:

1. be 5 A, independent of r
2. be 2.5 A, independent of r
3. be less than 5 A, decreasing with r
4. be more than 5 A, increasing with r

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None

20. Two conducting circular loops of radii R₁ and R₂ are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If (R₁ >> R₂) the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to:

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None

21. For a monoatomic gas at temperature T, match the following:

Codes:
1. A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-P
2. A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
3. A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
4. A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

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None

22. Planet A has a density and radius represented by p and R respectively, while planet B has a density of p/2 and a radius of 1.5R. If g_AS and g_BS denote the acceleration at the surface of planets A and B respectively, then the ratio g_BS /g_AS =

1. 3/2
2. 3/4
3. 1/4
4. 3

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None

23. A gun is fired horizontally with its shell travelling at a velocity of 100 m/s, initially. It impacts the ground after 10 s. Assume there is no air resistance and take g = 10 m/s². The velocity of impact is:

1. 0 m/s
2. 200 m/s
3. 150 m/s
4. 100 √2 m/s

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None

24. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity v₁ for a certain distance æ and with a constant velocity v₂ for the next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by the relation:

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None

25. The figure shows a circuit with two cells connected in opposition. One cell has an EMF of 6 V and an internal resistance of 2 Ω, while the other cell has an EMF of 4 V and an internal resistance of 8 Ω. The potential difference across the terminals X and Y is:

1. 5.4 V
2. 5.6 V
3. 5.8 V
4. 6.0 V

Deselect Answer

None

26. A 20 V cell delivers the same power to a 2 Ω resistor as it does to an 8 The internal resistance of the cell is:

1. 2 Ω
2. 4 Ω
3. 6 Ω
4. 1.6 Ω

Deselect Answer

None

27. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Elastic energy density is proportional to the product of the stress & the strain.
Statement II: Hooke’s law is valid only if the applied stress does not exceed the proportional limit.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Deselect Answer

None

28.. For an equilateral prism, it is observed that when a ray strikes grazingly at one face, it emerges grazingly at the other. Its refractive index will be:

1. √3/2
2. 2/√3
3. 2
4. data not sufficient

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None

29. A car is moving along a circular path of radius 500 m with a speed of 30 m/s. If, at some instant, its speed increases at the rate of 2 m/s² then, at that instant, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration will be:

1. 4.7 m/s²
2. 3.8 m/s²
3. 3 m/s²
4. 2 .7 m/s²

Deselect Answer

None

30. If the fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at one end is 512 Hz, then the first overtone of a pipe of the same dimensions but open at both ends will be:

1. 1024 Hz
2. 512 Hz
3. 256 Hz
4. 2048 Hz

Deselect Answer

None

31. Match the units mentioned in List-I with the units in List-II.

1. (a)-(ii), (b)- (iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iv),(b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv),(b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a) -(ii),(b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

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None

32. An excited heavy nucleus Z X emits radiations in the following sequence:

where Z, A are the atomic and mass number of element X, respectively. The possible emitted particles or radiations in the sequence, respectively are:

1. e⁺, α , e^–, α, γ
2. e^–, α , e⁺, α, γ
3. α, e^–, α, e⁺, γ
4. α, e⁺, α, e^–, γ

Deselect Answer

None

33. A thin equi-convex lens of refractive index 1.2 is dipped in oil of index 1.44. The lens has a power of 2 D (in air). When it is immersed in the oil, the focal length of the lens becomes:

1. 50 cm
2. -50 cm
3. – 50/1.2 cm
4. – 50×1.2 cm

Deselect Answer

None

34. An electric train is traveling along a straight, horizontal track. A constant resultant force (greater than zero) acts on the train in the direction of its motion. What happens to the magnitude of the train’s acceleration and velocity while this force is acting?

1. The acceleration increases, and the velocity remains constant.
2. The acceleration remains constant, and the velocity increases.
3. The acceleration decreases, and the velocity increases.
4. The acceleration remains constant, and the velocity remains constant.

Deselect Answer

None

35. A metal wire has mass (0.4± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 plus/minus 0.001) mm and length (5 ±0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:

1.1.4%
2. 1.2%
3. 1.3%
4. 1.6%

Deselect Answer

None

36. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will be:

1. only inside the pipe
2. only outside the pipe
3. both inside and outside the pipe
4. neither inside nor outside the pipe

Deselect Answer

None

37. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When toothpaste is pressed (squeezed), it follows Pascal’s law.
Reason (R): When pressure is applied to a fluid, it is transmitted equally throughout the fluid in all directions and on the walls of the container.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

38. An interference pattern can be observed due to the superposition of more than one of the following waves:
(A) y = a sin (ωt)
(B) y = a sin (2 ωt)
(C) y = a sin (ωt-∅)
(D) y = a sin(3 ωt)
Identify the waves from the options given below:

1. (B) and (C) only
2. (B) and (D) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A) and (B) only

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None

39. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When a car starts moving on the road, its momentum increases due to friction from the road.
Statement II: In case of a car beginning to move on the road, the external friction does not do any work.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Deselect Answer

None

1. A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q
2. A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
3. A → R, B → P, C → S, D→ Q
4. A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R

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None

41. A bullet with a mass of 200 g, initially possessing a kinetic energy of 90 J, is shot into a long swimming pool (as shown in the figure). If its kinetic energy decreases to 40 J within 1 s, what is the minimum length of the pool the bullet must travel to come to rest completely?

1. 45 m
2 .90 m
3. 125 m
4. 25 m

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None

41. The RMS-value of a time varying current is zero, during a given time interval. It can be concluded that, during this interval,

1. the current is always zero
2. the current has identical positive and negative fluctuations
3. the current is positive for exactly half the time and negative for the remaining time
4. the interval) the current may be positive, negative or zero (during the interval)

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None

42. In the figure, points A, B, and C are the vertices of m. an equilateral triangle with sides of length Positive charges of magnitude Q = 1.1 * 10^-10 * C are located at points B and C. What is the direction of the electric field at point A? 10 ^-4

1. ↑
2. ↓
3. →
4. ←

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None

44. Consider the following Statements A and B and identify the correct answer:

A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse-biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (µA), is due to majority charge carriers.

1. A is incorrect but B is correct.
2. Both A and B are correct.
3. Both A and B are incorrect.
4. A is correct but B is incorrect.

Deselect Answer

None

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None

CHEMISTRY

46. How many moles of FeC₂ O₄ are required to reduce one mole of KMnO₄ in acidic medium?

1. 3/5
2. 1/5
3. 5/3
4. 5

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None

47. Among the following, which hydrolysis reaction occurs at the slowest rate:

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None

48. What is the final product (major) ‘A’ in the given reaction?

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None

49. The least basic aqueous solution among the following is:

1. (CH₃)₂ NH
2. (CH₃) NH₂
3. (CH₃)₃ NH
4. C₆ H₅ NH₂

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None

50. When KMnO₄ acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately forms [MnO₄]^-2 , MnO₂, Mn₂ O₃, Mn⁺² then the number of electrons transferred in each case, respectively, are:

1. 4, 3, 1, 5
2. 1, 5, 3, 7
3. 1, 3, 4, 5
4. 3, 5, 7, 1

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None

51. A compound A of formula C₃H₆Cl₂ on reaction with alkali can give B of formula C₃ H₆O or C of formula C₃ H₄. B on oxidation gave a compound of the formula . C with dilute H₂SO₄ containing Hg²⁺ ion gave D of formula C₃ H₆O, which with bromine and NaOH gave the sodium salt of C₂H₄O₂. Then A is:

1. CH₃ CH₂ CHCl₂
2. CH₃ CCI₂ CH₂
3. CH₂ ClCH₂ CH₂Cl
4. CH₃ CHClCH₂Cl

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None

52. The reaction,

is called:

1. Williamson synthesis
2. Williamson’s continuous etherification process
3. Etard reaction
4. Gatterman-Koch reaction

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None

53. How many moles of HCl(g) are formed when 22.4 L of H₂(g) reacts with 11.2 L of Cl₂(g) at STP?

1. 1 mole of HCl (g)
2. 2 moles of HCl (g)
3. 0.5 mole of HCl (g)
4. 1.5 mole of HCl (g)

Deselect Answer

None

54. Match Column-I with Column-II and mark the correct option.

Codes:
1. i=d, ii=c, iii=b, iv=a
2. i=c, ii=d, iii=b, iv=a
3. i=c, ii=d, iii=a, iv=b
4. i=a, ii=c, iii=b, iv=d

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None

55. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increase in the order
Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with the increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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None

56. The correct match of column I (chemicals) with column II (used to detect a functional group) is:

a           b          c          d
1. r p          q          s
2. q s           p          r
3. r s q          p
4. s q          p          r

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None

57. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The C- O bond length of aliphatic alcohols less than aromatic alcohols.
Reason (R): In aromatic alcohols, C- O bond acquires π- bond character

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

58. Match Column-I with Column-II and mark the most appropriate option:

Deselect Answer

None

59. Match Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice.

1. (A)→(ii), (B)→(iii), (C)→(i), (D)→(iv)
2. (A)→(iv),(B)→(iii), (C)→(i),(D)→(ii)
3. (A)→(iii),(B)→(i), (C)→(ii), (D)→(iv)
4. (A)→(i), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iii), (D)→(iv)

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None

60. Consider the following molecules and statements related to them:

(I) (B) is more likely to be crystalline than (A)
(II) (B) has a higher boiling point than (A)
(III) (B) dissolves more readily than (A) in water
Identify the correct option from below:

1. (1) and (II) are false
2. Only (III) are true
3. Only (1) is true
4. (1), (II) and (III) are true

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None

61.
(1) R
(2) S
(3) R, S both
(4) None of these

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None

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None

63. Which of the following relations between the molar solubility (S) and the solubility product K_sp sp is correct for Zr₃ (PO₄)₄?

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None

64. The molarity of one liter solution of 22.2 gm CaCl₂ :

1. 0.4 M
2. 0.2 M
3. 0.8 M
4. 0.6 M

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None

65. An ideal gas in a thermally insulated vessel at internal pressure = P₁, volume = V₁, and absolute temperature T₁ expands irreversibly against zero external pressure, as shown in the diagram. The final internal pressure, volume, and absolute temperature of the gas are P₂, V₂ and T_₂Which of the following relation(s) are correct for this expansion?
(a) q = 0 (b) T₂ = T₁(c) P₂ V₂ = P₁ V₁ (d)

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. None of the above

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None

66. Match the following:

1. (i)-(d). (ii)-(c), (iii) -(e), (iv) -(ii)
2. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)- (e)(iv)-(a)
3. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
4. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

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None

67. Given is a reaction for your reference:

The final product [C] is:

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None

68. ∆G° of the following reaction at 25°C is :
2NO(g) + Cl(g) ⇌ 2NOCl(g)

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None

69. The product of following reacting is

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None

70. False statement regarding PCl, is

1. PCl₅ molecule is non-reactive.
2. Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120° deg with each other.
3. Two axial P-Cl bonds make an angle of with each other.
4. Axial P-C1 bonds are longer than equatorial P-Cl bonds.

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None

71. Three elements X, Y, and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y, and Z. respectively, are basic, amphoteric, and acidic. What is the correct order of the atomic numbers for X, Y, and Z?

1. Z < Y < X
2. X < Z < Y
3. X < Y < Z
4. Y < X < Z

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None

72.
the missing reagent is :-

1. CF₃ CO₃H
2. H₂ SO₄3. LAH
4. NaBH₄

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None

73. Which of the following lanthanoid ions diamagnetic?
(At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu =63, Yb – 70)

1. Ce²⁺ 2. Sm²⁺
3. Eu²⁺ 4. Yb²⁺

Deselect Answer

None

74. Which step is the chain termination step in the following mechanism?

1. (1)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)

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None

75. Consider the following statements:
I: The radius of an anion is larger than that of the parent atom.
II: The electronegativity of any given element is a constant, and it is a measurable quantity.
III: The electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an isolated atom to attract an electron.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only II
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and III

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None

76. For the general reaction X →Y, the plot of concentration of X vs. time is given in the figure. The order of the reaction and units of rate constant, respectively, are:

1. First, mol^-1 L ^-1 s^-1
2. First, mol L ^-1 s^-1
3. First, s^-1
4. Zero, L ^-1 mol s^-1

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None

77. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower than early lanthanoids.
Reason (R): Electrons entering 5f orbitals in actinoids experience greater shielding from the nuclear charge.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

78. Match List-1 (Carbohydrates) with List II (Cyclic Structures) and select the correct option:

1. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
2. A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
3. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
4. A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4

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None

79. How many chiral center(s) is/are present in threonine?

1. Zero
2. One
3. Two
4. Three

Deselect Answer

None

80. Given:

I and II are classified as:

1. Identical
2. A pair of conformers
3. A pair of geometrical isomers
4. A pair of optical isomers

Deselect Answer

None

1. 85 mm Hg
2. 95 mm Hg
3. 90 mm Hg
4. 92 mm Hg

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None

82. Which of the following species contains an equal number of and bonds?

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None

83. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

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None

84. The incorrect match among the following options 15:

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None

85. Neopentyl iodide is treated with aq. AgNO₃ solution, a yellow precipitate is formed along with another compound which is

Deselect Answer

None

86. The incorrect equation among the following is:

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None

87. Arrange the following solutions in the decreasing order of pOH:
(A) 0.01M HCI
(B) 0.01M NaOH
(C) 0.01M COONa
(D) 0.01M NaCl

1. (A) > (C) > (D) > (B)
2. (A) > (D) > (C) > (B)
3. (B) > (C) > (D) > (A)
4. (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)

Deselect Answer

None

88. For the reaction, 2A → B, rates=k [A]². If the concentration of reactant is doubled, then the
(a) rate of reaction will be doubled.
(b) rate constant will remain unchanged, however rate of reaction is directly proportional to the rate constant.
(c) rate constant will change since the rate of reaction and rate constant are directly proportional to each other.
(d) rate of reaction will increase by four times.
Identify the set of correct statements & choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a) and (c) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (c) and (d) only

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None

89. IUPAC name of m-cresol is:

1. 3-Methylphenol
2. 3-Chlorophenol
3. 3-Methoxyphenol
4. Benzene-1,3-diol

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None

90. When 50.0 kg of nitrogen gas (N₂) and 10.0 kg of hydrogen gas (H₂) are combined, what is the quantity of ammonia gas (NH₃) produced?

1. 33 × 10³ mol
2. 56.1 × 10³ g
3. 6.5× 10³ g
4. None of the above

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None

BIOLOGY

91. Identify the correct statements:
I: Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary.
II: Smooth muscle is striated and involuntary.
III: Cardiac muscle is non-straited and involuntary.

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only I and II
4. I, II and III

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None

92. Aldosterone causes:
I: Reabsorption of sodium ions by the distal parts of the tubules.
II: Secretion of potassium ions by the distal parts of the tubules.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor I

Deselect Answer

None

93. Select the incorrect statement with respect to photorespiration?

1. In C_4- plants photorespiration does not occur
2. The biological function of photorespiration is not known yet
3. RuBP binds with O₂ to form 2 molecules of 3-PGA
4. There is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH

Deselect Answer

None

94. A gene:
I: is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.
II: can also be defined as DNA sequences coding for tRNA or rRNA.
III: can also be defined as certain regulatory sequences.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

Deselect Answer

None

95. Identify the incorrectly matched pairs:
I: M. W. Beijerinck: Gave the name virus
II: D. J Ivanowsky: Recognized the causal agents of mosaicism in tobacco to be larger than bacteria
III: M. W. Beijerinck : Contagium vivum fluidum
IV: W. M. Stanley: Discovered HIV

1. I and III
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Deselect Answer

None

96. Stomata in grass leaves are:

1. Dumb-bell shaped
2. Kidney shaped
3. Rectangular
4. Barrel-shaped

Deselect Answer

None

97. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre by

1. Reducing the duration of inspiration
2. Increasing the duration of in spirationonly
3. First increasing and then reducing the duration of expiration
4. Increasing the duration of expiration only

Deselect Answer

None

98. Consider the given tow statements:
Statement I: BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
Statement II: BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidised by bacteria.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

Deselect Answer

None

99. Twelve pairs of cranial nerves are present in all the following except:

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibians

Deselect Answer

None

100. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the hormone and its function?
A: Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium level
B: In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis
C: Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre
D: Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla
E: Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulated levels of sodium ions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

1. (C) and (E) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (A) and (D) only

Deselect Answer

None

101. The wings of birds, the forelegs of a horse, and the upper limbs of humans are:

1. analogous structures
2. homologous structures
3. vestigial structures
4. phylogenetic structures

Deselect Answer

None

102. When a retrovirus infects an animal cell:

1. c DNA is introduced into cell
2. Viral RNA is produced by reverse transcription
3. Viral RNA incorporates into host genomes
4. Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released

Deselect Answer

None

103. Proteins are

1. Macromolecules
2. Homopolymers
3. Micromolecules
4. Polymers of starch

Deselect Answer

None

104. Endosperm development precedes embryo development. Why?

1. Endosperm is triploid tissue in angiosperms.
2. Endosperm can be free nuclear or cellular type.
3. Endosperm contains growth factors necessary to induce dormancy if conditions are unfavourable.
4. Endosperm cells are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo

Deselect Answer

None

105. Hormones secreted by human placenta include:
a. hCG b. Estrogens
c. Progesterone d. LH

1. Only a, b and c
2. Only a, c and d
3. Only a, b and d
4. a, b, c and d

Deselect Answer

None

106. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are loosely packed (and stains light) and are referred to as euchromatin.
2. The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called Heterochromatin.
3. Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally inactive chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is active.
4. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in the nucleus called chromatin.

Deselect Answer

None

107. Which of the following is not a feature of mosses?

1. Gametophyte has two stages: protonema and leafy stage.
2. Gametophyte is dominant and bears sex organs.
3. Sporophyte is free-living and independent of the gametophyte.
4. Rhizoids are multicellular and branched

Deselect Answer

None

108. Quantitative comparisons between the growth of living system can be made in two ways where:
I: measurement and the comparison of total growth per unit time is called the absolute growth rate.
II: the growth of the given system per unit time expressed on a common basis, e.g., per unit initial parameter is called the relative growth rate

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

109. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Histamine is used to treat allergies.
Reason (R): Histamine is a vasoconstrictor.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is False

Deselect Answer

None

110. In the exponential growth equation 𝑑𝑁/𝑑𝑡 = 𝑟𝑁, the term 𝑟 represents:

1. Population size at a given time.
2. The carrying capacity of the population.
3. Population density divided by carrying capacity.
4.The intrinsic rate of natural increase, which is dependent on birth and death rates

Deselect Answer

None

111. Consider the two statements:
Assertion(A): Secondary growth takes place in dicot stems but not in monocot stems.
Reason(R): Hypodermis is collenchymatous in dicot stems while it is sclerenchymatous in monocot stems.

1. is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)

Deselect Answer

None

112. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in enriching soil nitrogen content?

1. Symbiotic bacteria like Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic compounds inside root nodules, while free-living bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter independently fix nitrogen in the soil.
2. Free-living nitrogen fixers like Azospirillum and Azotobacter depend on leguminous plants to fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form.
3. All nitrogen-fixing bacteria require a host plant for nitrogen fixation, as no bacteria can fix nitrogen independently.
4. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen directly into nitrates, which are readily absorbed by plants.

Deselect Answer

None

113. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Tubular secretion is an important process urine formation.
Reason (R): During urine formation, tubular cells secrete substances like proteins into the filtrate.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

Deselect Answer

None

114. Which of the following hormones are produced by the pars distalis region of the pituitary gland?

1. Growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), oxytocin, vasopressin
2. Growth hormone (GH), melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), oxytocin, vasopressin
3. Growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
4. Growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH).

Deselect Answer

None

115. Muscle:
I: is a specialised tissue of endodermal origin.
II: contributes about 20-30 per cent of the body weight of a human adult.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

116. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The alimentary canal in frogs is short.
Reason (R): Frogs are carnivores.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

117. How do thyroid hormones exert their effects on target cells?

1. By binding to membrane-bound receptors and activating second messenger pathways
2. By binding to intracellular receptors and influencing gene expression
3. By stimulating the release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft
4. By binding directly to mitochondrial receptors and altering ATP production

Deselect Answer

None

118. Which of the following statements best explains why plant cells cannot undergo cytokinesis through cleavage furrow
formation?

1. Plant cells lack centrioles, which are essential for cleavage furrow formation.
2. Plant cells have a rigid cell wall that prevents the plasma membrane from pinching inward.
3. Plant cells do not have actin and myosin filaments required for cleavage furrow formation.
4. Plant cells have a large central vacuole that interferes with cleavage furrow formation.

Deselect Answer

None

119. What role do macrophages play in the life cycle of HIV?

1. Macrophages act as HIV factories, continuously producing new virus particles as the viral DNA integrates into the host genome.

2. Macrophages engulf and destroy the HIV virus, preventing its replication.

3. Macrophages only serve as transporters of HIV but do not actively participate in viral replication.

4. Macrophages provide an acidic environment that inactivates the HIV virus.

Deselect Answer

None

120. Study the given figure and select the correct statements:

Statement I: The flower is epigynous
Statement II: Such a flower is seen in rose, plum and peach
Statement III: The position of ovary will be described as superior

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct; Statement III is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement III is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is correctDeselect Answer

None

121. Residual volume in lungs:
I: Prevents Lung Collapse
II: Facilitates Gas Exchange

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrectDeselect Answer

None

122. Which of the following is incorrect regarding emphysema?

1. Alveolar walls are damaged
2. There is an increase in the respiratory surface
3. Major cause is cigarette smoking
4. Can be caused by deficiency of Alpha-1- antitrypsin enzymeDeselect Answer

None

123. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: With few exceptions, in animals, mitotic cell division is generally only seen in the diploid somatic cells.
Statement II: The plants can show mitotic divisions in both haploid and diploid cells.

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correctDeselect Answer

None

124. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I: Fungi are predominantly found in warm and humid places and are cosmopolitan in their distribution, occurring in air, water, soil, and on animals and plants.

Statement II: Fungi are autotrophic organisms that synthesize their own food from inorganic substances.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.Deselect Answer

None

125. Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways.
Identify the correct statements:
I: At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis.
II: They are of paramount importance as primary producers of energy-rich compounds which form the basis of the food cycles of all aquatic animals.
III: Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are among the 70 species of marine algae used as food.
IV: Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria, are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-creams and jellies.
V: Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich in proteins, is used as food supplement even by space travellers.

1. Only I, II, III and IV
2. Only I, II, IV and V
2. Only I, II and III
4. Only II, III and IV

Deselect Answer

None

126. Whether a pollen grain will be able to germinate on a stigma is primarily decided by:

1. The stage at which the pollen is shed
2. Recognition by the stigma
3. Maturity of the egg cell in the embryosac
4. Environmental conditions

Deselect Answer

None

127. During the contraction of a skeletal muscle, calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind with:

1. F actin
2. G actin
3. troponin
4. Tropomyosin

Deselect Answer

None

128. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Any deviation from the normal shape of ECG indicates a possible abnormality or disease.
Reason (R): The ECGs obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead configuration.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

Deselect Answer

None

129. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Auxins was first isolated from human urine.
Statement II: Auxins are generally produced by the growing apices of the stems and roots, from where they migrate to the regions of their action.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

Deselect Answer

None

130. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Deselect Answer

None

131. The endocrine gland/s that also performs exocrine functions include:
a. Pituitary b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas d. Parathyroid

1. Only c
2. Only b and C
3. Only a and d
4. only b and d

Deselect Answer

None

132. Identify the correct statement:

1. In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed.
2. Spermatogonia are diploid and primary spermatocytes are haploid.
3. Testes descend into the scrotum after birth but before puberty while ovaries do not descend at all.
4. The Infundibulum of fallopian tube possesses fimbriae while fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Deselect Answer

None

133. Regarding aerobic cellular respiration:
I: Cells are able to utilize all the energy from glucose when released in one burst.
II: Gradual glucose breakdown allows for the simultaneous buildup of many ATP molecules.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

134. In brown algae, food is stored as which complex carbohydrates?

1. Starch and cellulose
2. Laminarin and mannitol
3. Glycogen and amylopectin
4. Floridean starch

Deselect Answer

None

135. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1. Golden algae are also called desmids
2. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
3. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
4. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

Deselect Answer

None

136. A hierarchy is an arrangement of items that are represented as being “above”, “below”, or “at the same level as” one another. The correct ascending order of taxonomic hierarchy is:

1. Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Division → Kingdom
2. Species → Genus → Family → Class → Order → Division → Kingdom
3. Species → Genus → Order → Family → Class → Division → Kingdom
4. Genus → Species → Family → Order → Class → Kingdom → Division

Deselect Answer

None

137. Nucleic Acids:
I: are polynucleotides.
II: are constituents of the true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

138. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. S Q P R
2. S Q R P
3. Q S P R
4. Q S R P

Deselect Answer

None

139. ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane in:
I: Mitochondria II: Chloroplasts

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Deselect Answer

None

140. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. R P S Q
2. P R Q S
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S

Deselect Answer

None

141. Match the following structures with their functions in the human reproductive system:

1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
2. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
3. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
4. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

Deselect Answer

None

142. Match the following types of tissues with their functions:

1. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
4. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

Deselect Answer

None

143. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In aerobic cellular respiration, the complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in the cytoplasm.
Statement II: The apparatus for passing electrons to molecular oxygen with simultaneous synthesis of ATP is located in the intermembrane space

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

Deselect Answer

None

144. How many of the following statements are true?
Statement I: Our lungs remove large amounts of CO₂ (approximately 200mL/minute) and also significant quantities of water every day.
Statement II: The liver, the largest gland in our body, secretes bile-containing substances like bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid hormones, vitamins, and drugs. Most of these substances ultimately pass out along with digestive wastes.
Statement III: Sweat, produced by sweat glands, contains NaCl, small amounts of urea, lactic acid, and certain steroid hormones, making it a major route for nitrogenous waste elimination.
Statement IV: Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons, and waxes through sebum, which primarily serves to lubricate and protect the skin, but also has a minor role in waste elimination.

Choose the correct option:
1.Only one statement is true.
2. Two statements are true.
3. Three statements are true.
4. All four statements are true.

Deselect Answer

None

145. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The tonoplast plays a crucial role in maintaining turgor pressure in plant cells.
Reason (R): The tonoplast is a non-selective membrane that allows free movement of all ions and molecules between the vacuole and the cytoplasm.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

146. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Sea- fan (Gorgonia)
3. Saccharomyces
4. Coelenterata algae

Deselect Answer

None

147. The osmolarity gradient in the medullary interstitium ranges from:

1. 100 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 800 mOsmol/L in the medulla
2. 300 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1200 mOsmol/L in the inner medulla
3. 500 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1500 mOsmol/L in the medulla
4. 200 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1000 mOsmol/L in the inner medulla

Deselect Answer

None

148. Regarding ‘Saheli’:
I: It is a steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI
II: It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

149. Match the following RNA polymerases with their primary transcripts in eukaryotes:

Codes:
A B C
1. Q R P
2. P Q R
3. Q P R
4. P R Q

Deselect Answer

None

150. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Flowering plants have evolved adaptations to promote cross pollination
Reason (R): Most angiosperms are dioeceous plants.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

Deselect Answer

None

151. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds true for all genes in an organism.
Reason (R): Genes located on the same chromosome exhibit linkage and do not assort independently.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

152. Identify the molecule shown in the figure:

1. Uracil
2. Thymine
3. Cytosine
4. Guanine

Deselect Answer

None

153. Match Column –I with Column –II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Deselect Answer

None

154. The somatic neural system relays impulses from:

1. the CNS to skeletal muscles
2. the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body
3. the skeletal muscles of the CNS
4. the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body to the CNS

Deselect Answer

None

155. Regarding double fertilization in angiosperms:
I: syngamy requires one male gamete and one egg cell
II: triple fusion requires one male gamete, one egg cell and one polar nucleus

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

156. Match each item in Column-I with the one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. P Q R S
2. Q P S R
3. Q P R S
4. P Q S R

Deselect Answer

None

157. Consider the following statements:
A single turn of the Krebs citric acid cycle produces
A: one molecule of FADH2
B: two molecules of CO2

1. only A is correct
2. only B is correct
3. both A and B are correct
4. both A and B are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

158. Ethylene, a plant growth regulator, is not used for
I: Retarding ripening of tomatoes
II: Hastening of ripening of fruits
III: Slowing down ripening of apples

1. Both I and II
2. Both II and III
3. Both I and III
4. I, II and III

Deselect Answer

None

159. Match the following diseases (List I) with their causative pathogens (List II):

1. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5
2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5
3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4
4. A-5, B-2, C-1, D-3, E-4

Deselect Answer

None

160. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: Photo-phosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of light.
II: When the two photosystems work in a series, first PS II and then the PS I, a process called non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation occurs.
III: When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the photosystem and the phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons.

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Deselect Answer

None

NEET REVISION TEST 7 (18.02.2026)

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