NEET REVISION TEST 1 (24.01.2026)

Deselect Answer

29. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively 1×10¹⁰  N/m² and 52×10¹⁰  N/m². A brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same force; the radii of brass and steel wires R_B are R_S and respectively. Then:

30. Given that the displacement of a particle is given by, x=A² sin² kt, where denotes t the time. The unit of k is:

1. hertz
2. metre
3. radian
4. second

31. A resistance R draws power P when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power drawn will be:

32. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 Ω all connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 Ω and a shunt of 20 Ω, then the reading in the ammeter will be:

1. 0.5 A
2. 0.02 A
3. 2 A
4. 1 A

33. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The coil is bound over the metallic frame in the moving coil galvanometer.
Reason (R): The metallic frame helps in making steady deflection without any oscillation.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

34. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n₁ → n₂ where n₁ and n₂ are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr’s model to be valid, the time period of the electron in the initial state is 8 times that in the final state. The possible values of and are:

35. If the volume of an ideal gas is doubled, isothermally, the final pressure is 1 atm. If the process was adiabatic, the pressure would have been:

1. 1 atm
2. 0.5 atm
3. less than 1 atm
4. greater than 1 atm

36. A conducting sphere of the radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are:

37. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an AC voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is tan^-1√3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again tan^-1√3. The power factor of the circuit is:

38. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the light of 500 mm is used to produce, an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the screen is close to:

39. A plane EM wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time is E = 6 V/m along y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at this point would be:

1. 2×10^-8 T along z- direction
2. 2×10^-8 T along y-direction
3. 3×10^-8 T along x-direction
4. 6×10^-8 T along z-direction

40. A pulse is generated at the lower end of a hanging rope of uniform density and length L. The speed of the pulse, when it reaches the mid-point of the rope is:

41. An uncharged spherical conducting shell of outer radius R has two-point charges q₁, q₂ placed within it. The flux of the electric field due to all charges from the outer surface of the sphere is ϕ₀ while the potential of the sphere is V₀. The ratio ϕ₀ / V₀ is proportional to:

1. √R
2. R
3. R²
4. 1/R².

42. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:

1. 5 λ
2. 5λ/2
3. 3λ 
4. 4λ

43. A circuit to verify Ohm’s law uses ammeter and voltmeter in series or parallel connected correctly to the resistor. In the circuit:

1. The ammeter is always connected in series and the voltmeter is in parallel.
2. Both the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in series.
3. Both the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in parallel.
4. The ammeter is always connected in parallel and the voltmeter is in series.

44. A ray of light is incident on the spherical interface separating two media: medium-1 (refractive index – μ₁) and medium – 2 (refractive index – μ₂). It travels parallel to the principal axis, undergoes two consecutive reflections and then emerges opposite to its initial direction. The centre-of-curvature C and the pole P are shown in the figure.

The angle of incidence of the ray at the surface is:
1. 0
2. 90
3. 45
4. 135

45. An average induced EMF of 0.2 V appears in a coil when the current in it is changed from 5.0 A in one direction to 5.0 A in the opposite direction within 0.2s. The self‐inductance of the coil will be:

1. 4.0×10⁻³ H
2. 4.0×10⁻⁴ H
3. 2.0×10⁻³ H
4. 2.0×10⁻⁴ H

CHEMISTRY

46. Assertion (A): Ce⁴⁺ is a good analytical reagent
      Reason (R): Ce⁴⁺ has the tendency to change to Ce³⁺.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

47. For a first-order reaction:

the value of x will (based on information given): (Report your answer to the nearest integer)

1. 14
2. 16
3. 18
4. 20

48. Reagents that can be used to convert alcohols to carboxylic acids are:
(A) CrO₃ – H₂SO₄              
(B) K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO
(C) KMnO₄ + KOH/H₃O⁺  
(D) Cu, 573 K
(E) CrO₃+ (CH₃CO)₂O
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (B), (C) and (D) only
2. (B), (D) and (E) only
3. (A), (B) and (C) only
4. (A), (B) and (E) only

49. Which of the following statements about Potash alum is incorrect?

50. Match the metals Column-I with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s) Column-II and mark the correct option:


1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
2. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
3. (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)
4. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

51. The IUPAC name of the given compound is:

52. The equilibrium expression below corresponds to which of the following reactions?

53. Which of the following equation represents a reaction that provides the enthalpy of the formation of CH₃Cl?

54. Semicarbazide, among the following, is:

55. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:

1. HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl
2. HNO₃ , NO, NH₄Cl, N₂
3. HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂
4. NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃.

56. Number of atoms present in 0.224 dm³ PH₃ at STP will be: (N_A = Avogadro’s number)

57. The solubility of phenol in water is lower. This can be attributed to:

58. The compound that will undergo reaction with the fastest rate is:

59. Match the acids given in Column I with their correct IUPAC names given in Column II and mark the appropriate option:

60. Which acid of each pair shown here would you expect to be stronger?

61. Which among the following have single unpaired electron?

62. Arrange the following alcohols in order of increasing reactivity towards sodium metal:

63. Which of the following structures represents cytosine?

64. The molar conductivity of a solution of AgNO₃ (considering the given data for this solution) at 298 K is:
(a) Concentration: 0.5 mol/dm³
(b) Electrolytic conductivity: 5.76×10^–3 S cm^–1

65. The species Ar, K⁺ and Ca²⁺ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?

66. Number of isomers of [Pt(NH₃)₄][CuCl₄) complex are:

67. Which of the following options is the correct IUPAC name for the given compound?


1. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
2. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
3. 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

68. The ratio of the number of electrons gained by acidified KMnO₄ and acidified K₂Cr₂O₇, respectively, in the given reaction is:


1. 5:6
2. 6:5
3. 3:5
4. 5:3

69. The value of K_c of the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2×10^-3. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = [B] =[C] = 3×10^-4 M. Select the correct option:

70. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is:

1. (CH₃)₂CH < (CH₃)₃ C < (C₆H₅)₂ CH < (C₆H₅)₃
2. (C₆H₅)₃ C < (CH₃)₃ C < (CH₃)₂ CH
3. (C₆H₅)₂CH < (CH₃)₃ C < (CH₃)₂CH
4. (CH₃)₂CH < (CH₃)₃C < (C₆H₅)₃C < (C₆H₅)₂CH

71. Elements that generally exhibit multiple oxidation states and whose ions in an aqueous medium are usually colored are:

72. The molecules that will have non-zero dipole moment are:
(a) 2,2-Dimethylpropane
(b) Trans-2-pentene
(c) Cis-3-hexene
(d) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylbutane
Choose the correct option:

73. What type of reaction is demonstrated by the process involving a carboxylic acid, an alcohol, and an acid that results in the formation of esters?

1. Reversible slow process
2. Irreversible fast process
3. Cyclic process
4. Adiabatic process

74. The quantum numbers  for the electron spin represent:

1. Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise directions, respectively.
2. Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise directions, respectively. and down, respectively.
3. The magnetic moment of the electrons pointing up
4. Two quantum mechanical spin states that have no classical analogues.

75. The bond order of B₂ is one. The type of bond and magnetic behaviour of B₂, respectively, are:

76. What is the solubility product of AuCl₃, solubility of gold (III) chloride is 1×10⁻⁴gL⁻¹?
[Given: molar mass = 303.3 g/mol]

77. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular mass
Reason (R): Ethers are polar in nature.

78. The pair of lanthanoid ions, consisting of elements which are diamagnetic, is:

79. Among the following, the intensive properties are: a. Molar conductivity b. Electromotive force c. Resistance d. Heat capacity

80. The strongest Bronsted base among the following ions is:

81. Assertion (A): A reaction of 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane with sodium methoxide gives 2-Methylpropene.
       Reason (R): Alkoxides are nucleophiles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

82. For a chemical reaction, 4A + 3B → 6C + 9D rate of formation of C is 6 × 10^–2mol L^–1s^–1 and rate of disappearance of A is 4 × 10–2 mol L^–1s^–1. The rate of reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of 10 seconds, respectively will be:

83. Insulin is a type of protein. How many amino acids makeup insulin?

84. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en)₃]Cl₂ and [Fe(H₂O)₆]Cl₂, respectively are:

85. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion:

86. The number of C-atoms in the second member of an ester are:

87. In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and hyperconjugation operate?

88. Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?

89. Among the following ligands, which is expected to make complexes with maximum absorption of visible light

1) Halogens (X)
2) CN^–
3) H₂O
4) NH₃

90. [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl exhibits

1) Optical isomerism
2) Geometrical isomerism
3) Both Optical and Geometrical isomerism
4) None of the aboveDeselect Answer

BIOLOGY

91. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Respiratory substrates can be carbohydrates, proteins or fats.
2. Proteins can directly enter the Krebs cycle without deamination.
3. Fats undergo beta-oxidation to form Acetyl-CoA.
4. The breakdown of carbohydrates is the most common respiratory substrate.

92. China rose:

1. belongs to Brassicaceae
2. has parietal placentation
3. has monoadelphous stamen
4. has valvate aestivation

93. Regarding anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis, which statement is accurate?

1. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I, while sister chromatids separate in anaphase I 
2. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase I, while homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase II.
3. Both homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids separate in anaphase I.
4. No separation occurs in anaphase II.

94. All species have evolved to adopt the most effective reproductive strategy for themselves. For example, pelagic fish produce:

1. a large number of small-sized offspring
2. a small number of small-sized offspring
3. a large number of large-sized offspring
4. a small number of large-sized offspring

95. Humus:

1. a large number of small-sized offspring
2. a small number of small-sized offspring
3. a large number of large-sized offspring
4. a small number of large-sized offspring

96. Which of the following statements will be true regarding the effect of mutations in the components of the lac operon of E.coli [assume mutations will lead to loss of function in the affected gene]?
I: A mutation in the i gene will lead to a stoppage of transcription of the operon.
II: A mutation in the z gene will lead to an inability in E.coli to hydrolyze the disaccharide, lactose.
III: A mutation in the y gene will lead to an inability in E.coli to pick up lactose from its surroundings.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

97. “Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually” – the statement is often described as:

1. Gause ‘s competitive exclusion principle
2. Connell’s competitive release hypothesis
3. McArthur’s resource partitioning hypothesis
4. Humboldt’s species – area relationship

98. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

99. At the end of the S phase during the cell cycle in a typical eukaryotic animal cell [having 2N chromosome number and 2C DNA content at the G1 phase]:

1. The chromosome number and DNA content remain 2N and 2C respectively
2. The chromosome number and DNA content are 4N and 2C respectively
3. The chromosome number and DNA content are 2N and 4C respectively
4. The chromosome number and DNA  content are 4N and 4C respectively

100. During the formation of a monosporic embryo sac in angiosperms, the functional megaspore undergoes:

1. two mitotic divisions
2. two meiotic divisions
3. three meiotic divisions
4. three mitotic division

101. The number of oxygen molecules used and carbon dioxide produced during the glycolysis pathway, respectively, are:

1. 0 and 0
2. 1 and 1
3. 3 and 3
4. 6 and 6

102. Consider the given two statements regarding the electron transport systemin mitochondria:
Statement I: NADH dehydrogenase is complex I
Statement II: ATP synthase is complex IV.

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

103. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

104. The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is composed of which of the following structures?

1. Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
2. Centriloles, ribosomes and microtubules
3. Nucleus, mitochondria and lysosomes
4. Golgi apparatus ER and cytoplasm

105. Miller and his co-workers (1954) isolated and purified the cell division substance in crystallised from autoclaved herring fish sperm DNA . This Active compound was a

1. Cytokinin
2. Gibberellin
3. Inhibin
4. Auxin

106. Which of the following statements best describes the broadly utilitarian argument for biodiversity conservation?

1. Biodiversity provides essential ecosystem services, such as oxygen production, pollination, climate regulation, and waste decomposition, which are crucial for human survival
2. Biodiversity has aesthetic and cultural significance, making its conservation important for future generations
3. Biodiversity should be conserved only when it has direct economic benefits, such as medicinal plants and food crops.
4. Conserving biodiversity is necessary because each species has an intrinsic right to exist, independent of human use

107. Stomatal apparatus in the epidermal tissue system of plants consists of

1. Only stomatal aperture and guard cells but not subsidiary cells.
2. Only stomatal aperture but not guard cells and subsidiary cells.
3. Only guard cells and subsidiary cells but not stomatal aperture.
4. Stomatal aperture, guard cells and subsidiary cells but not other epidermal cells.

108. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to:

1. mutualism
2. Anemsalism
3. commensalim
4. paraitism

109. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Net primary productivity (NPP) is the amount of energy that primary producers create minus the energy they use to grow and survive
Statement II: Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy that primary producers create.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

110. Grass plants can regenerate their leaves even after the upper parts are grazed by herbivores or cut by a lawnmower. Which of the following best explains this ability?

1. The presence of apical meristems at the tips of leaves ensures continuous primary growth.
2. Lateral meristems in stems promote secondary growth, allowing the plant to recover quickly.
3. Intercalary meristems located at the base of leaves or internodes enable growth even after the apical portion is removed.
4. Phellogen (cork cambium) replaces damaged tissues and initiates new leaf growth.

111. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Endosperm development precedes embryo Endosperm development precedes embryo development in angiosperms
Reason (R): Endosprem is triploid and zygote is diploid in anbgiosprems

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

112. The length of DNA is:
I. usually defined as number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to as base pairs) present in it.
II. is the characteristic of an organism

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

113. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Inbreeding increases the chances of offspring being affected by recessive traits
Reason (R): Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3. is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

114. For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle

1. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required.
2. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required.
3. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required.
4. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required

115. The central dogma of molecular biology is:

1. DNA → RNA → Protein
2. Protein → RNA → DNA
3. RNA → DNA → Protein
4. DNA → Protein → RNA

116. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
2. Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
3. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
4. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

117. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

1. It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance.
2. It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community.
3. It might lead to the extinction of species.
4. Both the interacting species are negatively impacted.

118. The number of correct statements from the given statements is:
I. Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods.
II. The majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus
III. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

119. In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway, A and B respectively represent


1. Mesophyll cells and Bundle sheath cells
2. Bundle sheath cells and Mesophyll cells
3. Bundle sheath cells and Palisade cells
4. Mesophyll cells and Guard cells

120. What is the primary significance of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?

1. It increases the chromosome number.
2. It ensures genetic stability by producing diploid gametes.
3. It conserves the chromosome number across generation.
4. It Reduce genetic variability in offspring.

121. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

1. Autogamy and geitonogamy
2. Geitonogamy and xenogamy
3. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
4. Autogamy and xenogamy

122. Humification in soil leads to the formation of humus. What is a unique characteristic of humus?

1. It is highly resistant to microbial action and decomposes slowly.
2. It decomposes quickly and serves as an immediate source of nutrients.
3. It is composed mainly of sugars and nitrogen-rich compounds.
4. It only forms in low-temperature environments.

123. The sobriquet “Lungs of the planet Earth” is used for:

1. Western Ghats in India
2. Alpine tundra
3. Amazon rainforest
4. Khasi and Jaintia Hills

124. Regarding Pteridophytes:
I. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous
II. Dryopteris, Pteris, and Adiantum belong to Pteropsi

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

125. Consider the given two statements – an Assertion [A] and a Reason [R] – and select the correct option as your answer:
A: Monocots do not form secondary tissues
R: The vascular bundles have no cambium present in them.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not correctly explain Assertion
2. Assertion is true; Reason is false
3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly explains Assertion
4. Assertion is false; Reason is true

126. Identify the pair that is characterised by the presence of a well-developed pith:

1. Monocot stem and dicot root
2. Monocot and dicot stems
3. Dicot stem and dicot root
4. Dicot stem and monocot root

127. The microsporangia in a typical angiosperm anther develop into which structures?

1. Floral primordium
2. Ovules
3. Sepals
4. Pollen sacs

128. Consider the given two statements
Assertion (A): Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.
Reason (R): Meiosis leads to the formation of gametes or spores and the gamete and the spores are haploid.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. is True, (R) is False
4. is False, (R) is False

129. When the centromere is located close to the end of a chromosome, the chromosome is known as:

1. Sub-metacentric
2. Acrocentric
3. Metacentric
4. Telocentric

130. Consider the given two statements:
I. Water splitting complex is associated with PSII in photosynthetic plants.
II. Chlorophyll a reaction center in PSII is called as P680

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Neither I nor II

131. The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful in biological pest control because they help in controlling:

1. Aphids and mosquitoes, respectively
2. Caterpillars and fruit flies, respectively
3. Nematodes and aphids, respectively
4. Termites and locusts, respectively

132. What is the key concept behind plant tissue culture?

1. Growing plants from seeds in a nutrient rich solution
2. Growing whole plants from explants in a sterile nutrient medium.
3. Reproducing plants by using their fruits and seeds in controlled conditions.
4. Crossbreeding two different plant species to create hybrids.

133. Identify the Incorrect Statement:

1. Plant growth is an irreversible increase in size, accompanied by metabolic processes.
2. The process of differentiation involves only morphological changes.
3. Apical meristems are responsible for primary growth in plants.
4. Development in plants is under the control of both intrinsic and extrinsic factors

134. Age pyramids are graphical representations that show the population distribution of:

1. Different species within an ecosystem.
2. Males and females in a population.
3. Various age groups within a population.
4. The population density of different habitats.

135. Which of the following represents an ectoparasite?

1. Tapeworm in human intestine
2. Tick on a dog
3. Liver fluke in a fish
4. Malarial parasite in blood cells

136. What is the term used to describe the vertical distribution of different species occupying various levels in an ecosystem?

1. Zonation
2. Species composition
3. Biotic interaction
4. Stratification

137. Which of the following enzymes initiates the glycolytic pathway by converting glucose to glucose-6- phosphate, and requires ATP for this reaction?

1. Invertase
2. Hexokinase
3. Pyruvic dehydrogenase
4. Alcohol dehydrogenase

138. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in:

1. African grasslands
2. Amazonian rain forest in South America
3. Western Ghats in India
4. Nile delta in Egypt

139. The untranslated regions:
I. are present at only the 5’ end of the mature mRNA in eukaryotes
II. are not required during translation and hence are spliced out of the mature mRNA

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

140. On average, only about what percent of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level?

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 40%
4. 90%

141. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: An undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm and the mesoderm in diploblastic organisms.
Statement II: A third germinal layer, endoderm, in between the ectoderm and mesoderm, is present in triploblastic animals.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

142. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

1. Vitamin-B
2. Vitamin-C
3. Omega 3
4. Vitamin-A

143. In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:

1. At the time of fertilization and by the father
2. At the time of fertilization and by the mother
3. At the time of implantation and by the father
4. At the time of implantation and by the mother

144. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): HIV infection leads to a progressive decrease in the number of helper T- lymphocytes in the body.
Reason (R): HIV replicates inside helper T- lymphocytes, producing progeny viruses that destroy these cells.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

145. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:

146. Capacitation occurs in:

1. Epididymis
2. Vas deference
3. Female reproductive tract
4. Rete testis

147. Consider the given two statements
I. Infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI) technique.
II. In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra- uterine insemination) of the female.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

148. In which class do animals possess an elongated body without jaws, paired fins, or scales, and are parasitic on fishes?

1. Cephalochordata
2. Urochordata
3. Cyclostomata
4. Cartilaginous Fishes

149. Corpus callosum connects

1. The two lateral ventricles
2. The third and the fourth ventricles
3. The two cerebral hemispheres
4. The cerebellum with the rest of the brain

150. Hormones which interact with intracellular receptors:
I. include steroid hormones and iodothyronines.
II. mostly regulate gene expression or chromosome function by the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome.

1. Both I and II are correct
2. Both I and II are incorrect
3. I is correct, II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect, II is correct 

151. Where is the antigen binding site present in an antibody molecule?

1. between the two light chains
2. between the two heavy chains
3. between the light and the heavy chains
4. at the very end of the antibody molecules [at their C terminus]

152. A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now extinct, having a cranial capacity of about 900 cc was:

1. Homo erectus
2. Neanderthal man
3. Homo sapiens
4. Australopithecus

153. A nucleic acid that contains nucleotides from two different heterologous sources (species) is called as:

1. B DNA
2. rDNA
3. mRNA
4. tRNA

154. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?

1. Oxygen
2. Hydrogen
3. Water vapour
4. Methane

155. The vocal sacs in male frogs serve to

1. Amplify sound to attract females during the breeding season.
2. Store oxygen for cutaneous respiration.
3. Secrete digestive enzymes for prey capture.
4. Control the flow of water into the lungs during respiration.

156. Which of the following statements about recombinant DNA technology and insulin production is correct?

1. Insulin from animal sources is identical to human insulin and does not cause allergic reactions.
2. Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone in humans, requiring processing to become active.
3. Recombinant insulin production involves a single DNA sequence encoding both A and B chains of insulin.
4. Bacteria used for recombinant insulin production produce mature insulin directly without further processing.

157. If the % weight of elements in Earth’s crust and human body are compared, all the following will have a higher % composition in human body except:

1. Carbon
2. Oxygen
3. Nitrogen
4. Calcium

158. Which of the following characteristic features always hold true for the corresponding group of animals?


1. a
2. b
3. c
4. dDeselect Answer

159. Which of the following statements accurately describes the male reproductive system of a frog?

1. The testes produce eggs and are attached to kidneys.
2. The male frog has a pair of testes which are connected to the ventral side of the kidneys by a structure called mesorchium.
3. The testes produce spermatozoa, and the reproductive process is facilitated by a pair of seminal vesicles.
4. The vasa efferentia transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.Deselect Answer

160. Identify the correct statement

1. α amino acids are substituted methanes
2. Only triglycerides are lipids that are both macromolecules as well as polymers
3. Cellulose forms secondary helical structures and can hold iodine molecules in the helical portion
4. Every virus will have both DNA and RNA as its genetic materialDeselect Answer

161. In terms of partial pressures, what is the primary driving force for the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli into the blood?

1. The concentration gradient of O2 between the blood and alveoli
2. The thickness of the diffusion membrane
3. The concentration of CO2 in the blood
4. The presence of high levels of nitrogen in the alveoliDeselect Answer

162. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?

1. Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus– Viviparity
2. Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart
3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation
4. Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)Deselect Answer

163. Match the number of bones to the parts in adult humans:


1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii
2. A-ii, B-iii, C-i
3. A-iii, B-i, C-ii
4. A-ii, B-i, C-iiiDeselect Answer

164. Which of the following is not a selectable marker of cloning vectors?

1. Ampicillin
2. Metformin
3. Chloramphenicol
4. TetracyclineDeselect Answer

165. The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are called somaclones because:

1. They can be produced in a very short span of time
2. They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two cells
3. The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce genetically identical plantlets
4. They are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grownDeselect Answer

166. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects the plant through its;

1. Chromosomal DNA
2. Complementary DNA
3. F plasmid
4. Ti plasmidDeselect Answer

167. The excretory system of a frog consists of all of the following, except:

1. a pair of kidneys
2. a pair of urethra
3. a single median cloaca
4. urinary bladderDeselect Answer