NEET WEEKLY TEST 2 (25.07.2026)

2. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K), and Sodium (Na) are 14 eV, 2.30 eV, and 2.75 eV respectively. If an incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 4.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons having lowest kinetic energy?

3. A brass rod and a steel rod having the same cross-sectional area are joined end to end.
Brass: L=1.2 m,  Y=0.1 TPa
Steel: L=0.8 m,  Y=2×10¹¹  Pa
A tensile force of 1000 N produces a total extension of 0.02 mm The cross-sectional area is

1. 1×10^-4 m²
2. 8×10^-4  m²    
3. 1.5×10-4 m²
4. 2×10^-4 m²

4. For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck’s constant as 6×10^-34 Js).

1. 100 nm
2. 150 nm
3. 200 nm
4. 50 nm

5. Two wires A and B are made of the same material and have the same length. The diameter of wire A is twice that of wire B. If both wires are subjected to the same tensile force of 400 N, then the ratio of the elastic potential energy stored in wire to that in wire B is

1. 1 : 2
2. 1 : 4
3. 2 : 1
4. 4 : 1

6. Waves are associated with matter only:

1. When it is stationary.
2. When it is in motion with the velocity of light only.
3. When it is in motion with any velocity.
4. None of the above.

7. Consider the following statements regarding Young’s modulus:
Statement I: Young’s modulus is the ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain, provided the elastic limit is not exceeded.
Statement II: Young’s modulus depends only on the material of the wire and is independent of its length and cross-sectional area.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

8. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?

1. 1.6×10^-19 J
2. 4 eV
3. 2.5×10^-19  J
4. 4.0×10^-19  J

9. Consider the following statements regarding elastic deformation:
Statement I: For two wires made of the same material and having equal lengths, the thinner wire undergoes a greater extension than the thicker wire when subjected to the same tensile force.
Statement II: The strain produced in a wire is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

10. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 150 g travelling at 0 m/s?

1. 14.7×10^-34 m
2. 4.47×10^-34  m
3. 4.7×10^-34 m
4. 1.47×10^-34  m

11. Which of the following figures represents the variation of the particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

1. √9+√12
2. √9-√12
3. √15
4. √21

13. A particle moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r. Which one of the following statements about its acceleration is correct?

1. The acceleration is zero because the speed is constant.
2. The acceleration is constant in both magnitude and direction.
3. The acceleration has constant magnitude but continuously changes its direction. 
4. The acceleration continuously changes in both magnitude and direction.

14. If x²-8√3 x+45=0, sum of their roots is

1. – 8√3
2. 45√3
3. 8√3
4. 37√3

15. Differentiate with respect to ‘x’ if y=(3x²+5)

16. Acceleration due to gravity on earth is 10 units. If it is increased by 75%, what its new value?

1. 7.5 units
2. 12.5 units
3. 25 units
4. 17.5 units

17. Find ∫(3x²-4x+2)dx

1. x³-2x²+2x+C
2. 3x³-4x²+2x+C
3. x³-4x²+2+C
4. x²-2x+2+C

18. The nearest approximate value of is

1. 11.5
2. 11
3. 10.75
4. 11.75

19. Assertion :If ω₀=0, then the angular displacement after time t is
Reason : A body starting from rest has zero initial angular velocity

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

20. The value of (log₁₀20³-log₁₀2³) is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 10
4. 10³

21. Consider the following statements regarding bulk modulus:
Statement I: The bulk modulus of a material is defined as the ratio of pressure applied to the resulting volumetric strain.
Statement II: A material with a larger bulk modulus is more compressible.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

22. The slope of the tangent to the curve y=x³-2x at x=1 is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

23. Evaluate 

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14

24. The radius of a circular loop increases from 2 cm to 3 cm. What is the percentage increase in its area?

1. 100%
2. 125%
3. 75%
4. 50%

25. A wheel starts rotating with an angular velocity of 20 rad s⁻¹. Its angular acceleration is zero. Find the angular displacement covered in 5 s.

1.50 rad
2. 100 rad
3. 75 rad
4. 25 rad

26. A particle moves in a circle of radius rwith constant angular velocity. If its angular acceleration is zero, then the motion is:

1. The particle is in uniform circular motion.
2, The particle moves with uniformly accelerated circular motion.
3, The particle moves in non-uniform circular motion. 
4. The particle completes one revolution with zero displacement.

27. A particle moves in a circle with constant angular velocity. Its angular acceleration is zero. After completing one full revolution, its displacement is:

1. 2πr
2. 2r Co
3. πr
4. Zero

28. A particle is moving along a circular path. If its angular displacement is zero, then the angular velocity of the particle is:

1. Zero
2. Positive
3. Negative
4. Cannot be determined from the given information

29. A force F=(3x²+2x-5) Newton acts on a body. The work done by this force in displacing the body from x=0 metre to x=2 metre is

1. 2 J
2. 6 J
3. 10 J
4. 14 J

30. For the function y=x³-3x^2+5, the minimum value of y is

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7

CHEMISTRY

31. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
2. 2. 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
3. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
4. 2,3-dimethyl-3-pentenol

32. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C

33. Which of the following is known as the bridge element of 2^nd group in Mendeleev’s table ?

1. Zn
2. Sr
3. Mg
4. Ca

34. The correct option with order of melting points of the pairs (Mn, Fe), (Tc, Ru) and (Re, Os) is:

1. Fe < Mn, Ru < Tc and Re < Os
2. Fe < Mn, Ru < Tc and Os < Re
3. Mn < Fe, Tc < Ru and Re < Os
4. Mn < Fe, Tc < Ru and Os < Re

35. The IUPAC name of the compound

1. 4-Cyano-4-methyloxopentane
2. 4-Cyano-4-methylpentan-2-one
3. 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
4. 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane

36. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?

1. Lithium
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
4. Rubidium

37. Electronic configutation [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d² 6s² belongs to

1. 3^rd group
2. 4^th group
3. 5^th group
4. 6^th group

38. Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of number of unpaired electrons in them.
(A) Sc                         (B) Cr
(C) V                         (D) Ti
(E) M
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
2. (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)
3. (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
4. (C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D)

39. Across a period from left to right, first ionization enthalpy generally

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. First decrease, then increase

40. Common name of the compound C₆H₅CH₂OH is

1. Anisole
2. benzaldehyde
3. phenol
4. Benzyl alcohol

41. Which among the following species has the same number of electrons in its outermost as well as penultimate shell ?

1. Mg²⁺
2. O^2-
3. F^–
4. Ca²⁺

42. The I.U.P.A.C. name of


1. 3–Methyl cyclohexene
2. 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.
3. 6–methyl cyclohexene
4. 1–methyl cyclohex5–ene

43. The electronic configuration of an element is [Kr]5s² . Name the element which is just below the element in the periodic table?

1. Cesium
2. Strontium
3. Barium
4. Radium

44. Match the Following (Alloys)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)–(IV), (B)–(II), (C)–(III), (D)–(I)
2. (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
3. (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)
4. (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(II), (D)–(I)

45. The number of elements from the following that do not belong to lanthanoids is: Eu, Cm, Er, Tb, Yb and Lu

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 5

46. Transuranium are

1. Uranium and Neptunium
2. Thorium and Lawrencium
3. Neptunium and Americium
4. Actinium and Uranium

47. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not isoelectronics ?

1. Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺
2. Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
3. He, H^–, Li ⁺
4. K⁺, Ca²⁺, Ne

48. IUPAC name of


1. 6-Bromo – 2- chloro cyclohexene
2. 1-Bromo-3- chlorocyclohexene
3. 3-Bromo – 1 chlorocyclohexene
4. 2 bromo 3-chlorocyclohex-2-ene

49. Which of the following has the highest electronegativity in the periodic table?

1. Oxygen
2. Fluorine
3. Chlorine
4. Nitrogen

50. The elements of group 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 are collectively called

1. noble elements
2 typical elements
3. transition elements
4. representative element

51. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s

d > f

52. Iupac name of


1. 5,6 – dimethylhept-2-ene
2. 2,3- dimethylhept-5-ene
3. 5,6 – dimethylhept-5-ene
4. 5-isopropylhex-2 –ene

53. Screening effect is not observed in

1. He⁺
2. Be³⁺
3. Li²⁺
4. All of the above

54. The IUPAC name of


1. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
2. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
3. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

55. According to the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their

1. Atomic mass
2. Atomic number
3. Atomic radius
4. Atomic density

56. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorrect

1. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
2. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
3. All the lanthanoids are much more reactive than aluminium.
4. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.

57. Which elements mostly form colored compounds?

1. s-block
2. p-block
3. d-block
4. f-block

58. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower than for early lanthanoids.
Reason (R): Electrons are entering 5f orbitals in actinoids which experience greater shielding from nuclear charge.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

59. An element X has an atomic number of 35. To which group and period of the modern periodic table does it belong?

1. Group 17, Period 4
2. Group 15, Period 4
3. Group 17, Period 3
4. Group 7, Period 4

60. Lanthanoid ions with 4f⁷ configuration are:
(A) Eu²⁺                     (B) Gd³⁺
(C) Eu³⁺                     (D) Tb³⁺
(E) Sm²⁺
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B) and (E) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (A) and (B) only

61. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide by the absence of:

1. Nitrogenous base
2. Pentose sugar
3. Phosphate group
4. Glycosidic bond

62. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having:

1. Spermatozoids
2. Conducting system
3. Separate gametophytes
4. Archegonia

63. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. Cytosine + Ribose → Cytidine
2. Uracil + Deoxyribose → Uridine
3. Thymine + Ribose → Thymidine
4. Adenine + Phosphate → Adenosine

64. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.

1. i and ii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i only

65. Which of the following is NOT a nucleoside?

1. Adenosine
2. Cytidine
3. Adenylate
4.Uridine

66. Which of the following feature is related to the gametophyte of pteridophyte?

1. It bears male and female sex organs
2. It bears antheridia only
3. It is dependent on sporophyte
4. It is well differentiated into stem, root and leaves

67. Which one of the following contains a phosphate group?

1. Guanosine
2. Cytidine
3. Deoxyadenosine
4. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)

68. The plant body of Funaria is

1. completely sporophyte
2. predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
3. completely gametophyte
4. predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte

69. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical angiosperm is:

1. n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 4n

70. Deoxyadenosine consists of:

1. Adenine + Ribose
2. Adenine + Deoxyribose
3. Adenine + Ribose + Phosphate
4. Adenine + Deoxyribose + Phosphate

71. Vegetative reproduction in mosses take place by budding in the

1. Primary protonema
2. Thallus
3. Secondary protonema
4. Sporophyte

72. Which nucleoside is present in DNA but absent in RNA?

1. Adenosine
2. Guanosine
3. Cytidine
4. Deoxythymidine (Thymidine)

73. Select the incorrect statement

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function, and behaviour
2. In oomycetes, female gametes are smaller and motile, while male gametes are larger and non-motile
3. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

74. Which nucleoside is found only in RNA?

1. Uridine
2. Thymidine
3. Deoxycytidine
4. Deoxyguanosine

75. Which of the following show shows diploid phase in gymnosperm?

1. Megaspore, endosperm, pollen grains
2. Megaspore mother cell, zygote, pollen grains
3. Zygote, embryo, endosperm
4. Megaspore mother cell, zygote, embryo

76. Which of the following is not a characteristic of living organisms?

1. Growth
2. Reproduction
3. Consciousness
4. Photosynthesis

77. Read the following statements and select the incorrect statement(s)
i. In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on same tree.
ii. In Pinus, male and female strobili are borne on same tree.
iii. In Cycas, roots are tap root and formed fungal association called mycorrhiza.
iv. In Pinus, sporophytic phase is dominant.

1. (i) only
2. Both (i) and (iii)
3. (iii) only
4. None of these

78. The study of identification, nomenclature and classification of organisms is called:

1. Ecology
2. Taxonomy
3. Genetics
4. Physiology

79. Select the correct pattern of arrangement of reproductive structures for gymnosperms.

1. Spores → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Stobili
2. Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Stobili
3. Sporangia →Sporophylls → Spores →Stobili
4. Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls

80. Who is known as the Father of Taxonomy?

1. Darwin
2. Aristotle
3. Linnaeus
4. Whittaker

81. If the diploid roots of gymnosperm have 36 chromosomes, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm

1. 36
2. 18
3. 54
4. 72

82. Scientific names are generally written in:

1. Hindi
2. Latin
3. Greek
4. English

83. Assertion: The endosperm mother cell is haploid and formed from megaspore
       Reason: The endosperm in gymnosperm is formed after fertilization..

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

84. In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the:

1. 5′ carbon of sugar
2. 3′ carbon of sugar
3. 1′ carbon of sugar
4. 2′ carbon of sugar

85. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

1. Laminaria and Sargassum
2. Gelidium and Gracilaria
3. Anabena and Volvox
4. Chlorella and Spirulina

86. Assertion (A): A nucleoside contains a phosphate group.
      Reason (R): A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

87. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of _________and an outer layer of _________

1. Cellulose, starch
2. Pectose, cellulose
3. Pectose, algin
4. Cellulose, pectose

88. Assertion (A): RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
      Reason (R): Uracil is a pyrimidine nitrogenous base.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

89. The scientific name of mango is:

1. Mangifera indica
2. Mangifera Indica
3. mangifera indica
4. Indica Mangifera

90. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements.
(a) In gymnosperms microspores are male gametophytes.
(b) The megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis and formed four haploid megaspores.
(c) The formation of more than one embryo is found in Pinus.
(d) Both sporophytic and gametophytic phase are dependent to each other in gymnosperms.
(e) The endosperm is haploid before fertilization but diploid after fertilization.
Choose the correct answer from the above.

1. (a) and (e) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (b) and (c) only.

91. In Mollusca, special organ is present for feeding called

1. Parapodia
2. Radula
3. Operculum
4. Osphradium

92. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the ovisacs of a frog?

1. They are found in male frogs to store sperm
2. They open into the ureters before entering the cloaca
3. They are the anterior funnel-shaped openings of the oviduct
4. They are the posterior dilated regions of the oviducts opening separately into the cloaca

93. Hippocampus belongs to Class

1. Agnatha
2. Chondrichthyes
3. Osteichthyes
4. Mammalia

94. Select the correct option.


1. A-Testes B- Gall bladder C- Adrenal gland E- Kidney
2. A-Vasa efferentia B- Gall bladder C- Kidney D- Bidder’s canal
3. A- Vasa efferentia B- Testes D- Fat body E- Kidney
4. B-Testes C- Adrenal gland D- Bidder’s canal E- Fat body

95. Which of the following is not found in birds?

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Hindlimb
4. Forelimb

96. Assertion (A): The oesophagus of a frog is situated at the posterior side of the body.
      Reason (R): The oesophagus transport food item from the buccal cavity to the stomach.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

97. Which of the following is not an annelid?

1. Leech
2. Earthworm
3. Nereis
4. Sea cucumber

98. Which of the following sets of animals possess a four chambered heart?

1. Crocodiles, birds, mammals
2. Crocodiles, lizards, birds
3. Amphibians, reptiles, birds
4. Lizard, mammals, birds

99. In a male frog, the testes are:

1. Paired, yellowish, ovoid bodies
2. Unpaired elongated organ
3. White coiled glands
4. Attached to the urinary bladder

100. How does the female frog’s reproductive tract differ from the male’s?

1. Female frogs lack a urinary bladder
2. In females, the ureter and oviduct open separately into the cloaca
3. In females, the oviduct is a shared tube with the excretory system
4. Ovaries are positioned on the ventral side of the heart

101. Which of the following will produced only one type of gamete?

1. AaBBCc
2. AABbCC
3. AaBbCc
4. AABBCC

102. Identify the phyla
(i) That possess notochord in the larval tail only
(ii) Where notochord extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life

1. (i) Hemichordate; (ii) Urochordate
2. (i) Urochordate; (ii) Echinodermata
3. (i) Cephalochordate; (ii) Urochordate
4. (i) Urochordate; (ii) Cephalochordate

103. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the testes in male frogs:

1. They are a pair of reddish, spherical structures.
2. Each testis is covered by a fold of peritoneum called mesorchium.
3. Fat bodies are attached to the anterior end of the testes.
4. They are situated in the upper part of the abdominal cavity.

104. Notochord arises from

1. Endoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Ectoderm
4. None of these

105. Assertion: The frog’s digestive tract ends in the cloaca
        Reason: The cloaca is the common chamber for digestive, excretory and reproductive systems.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

106. Which of the following group of animals have a unique property of possessing mammary glands, hair and pinnae?

1. Elephas, Corvus, Neophron
2. Chelone, Panthera, Vipera
3. Balaenoptera, Pterophus, Delphinus
4. Betta, Hyla, Canis

107. Which of the following is true regarding the ovaries in a female frog?

1. They are directly attached to the urinary bladder
2. They are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called the mesorchium
3. They are attached to the dorsal body wall by a fold of peritoneum called the mesovarium
4. They produce eggs that pass into the body cavity and exit through the kidneys

108. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Kidneys participate in both excretion and sperm transport.
II. Ureters transport urine only in male frogs.
III. Cloaca opens outside through the cloacal aperture.

1. I only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

109. Read the following statements with respect to Cyclostomes and select the incorrect ones.
A. They lack scales and paired fins
B. They have circular mouth with jaws
C. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
D. They migrate to deep sea for spawning

1. A and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only

110. Select the correct pair.

1. QqRrSs-7
2. QqRrSs-8
3. XxYyZz-16
4. XxYyZz-0

111. Superclass Tetrapoda is further classified into how many classes

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

112. Which of the following will be produced by genotype AaBb?

1. Ab, aa,bb,AB
2. aB,Ab,Aa,Bb
3. Ab,AB,aB,ab
4. Ab,aB,Aa,ab

113. Which of the following is true about digestive system of echinoderms?

1. Mouth is ventral
2. Mouth is dorsal
3. Digestive system is complete
4. All of the above

114. Identify the parts


1. A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Post anal tail, D-Gill slits
2. A-Notochord, B-Nerve cord, C-Post anal tail, D-Gill slits
3. A-Gill slits, B-Nerve cord, C-Post anal tail, D-Notochord
4. A-Gill slits, B-Notochord, C-Post anal tail, D-Nerve cord

115. Select the incorrect statement.

1. Cloaca is the common chamber for digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems.
2. The rectum opens into the cloaca.
3. The oesophagus opens directly into the ileum.
4. The duodenum receives bile and pancreatic juice.

116. Select the INCORRECT statement with reference to the reproductive system of a female frog:

1. A mature female frog posses a pair of ovary.
2. Ovaries have no functional or internal connections with the kidneys.
3. Both oviducts open into the cloaca separately.
4. Ureters act as a urinogenital duct carrying both urine and eggs

117. Match the following phylum with their characteristic feature


1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

118. The superclass of Gnathostomata is divided on which basis

1. Presence of fins or limbs
2. Presence or absence of notochord
3. Presence or absence of jaws
4. Presence or absence of scales

119. Air bladder is present in which of the following aquatic organisms

1. Clarias
2. Scoliodon
3. Pristis
4. Trygon

120. Consider the following statements:
I. The liver of a frog has three lobes.
II. The gall bladder lies between the lobes of the liver.

1. Both I and II are correct.
2. Only I is correct.
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect.