NEET REVISION TEST XIX (08.04.2026)

1. A small circular loop of radius r is placed in the plane of a square loop of side length L(r << L). A circular loop is at the center of the square as shown in the figure. The mutual inductance of the given system is:

2. A particle of mass 5m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v each. The energy released during the process is:

1. 3/5 mv²
2. 5/3 mv²
3. 3/2 mv²
4. 4/3 mv²

3. In the pulley system shown, a light, inextensible rope passes over a fixed, frictionless pulley and supports a movable pulley that carries a mass m. One end of the rope is pulled slowly at a constant velocity, making an angle α with the horizontal. If the tension in the rope at the pulling end is T, what is the value of T?


1. mg cos α
2. mg sin α
3. mg
4. 1/2  mg

4. Consider two satellites, S₁ and S₂ with periods of revolution 1 hr and 8 hr, respectively revolving around a planet in circular orbits. The ratio of the angular velocity of the satellite S₁ to the angular velocity of the satellite S₂ is:

1. 8 :1
2. 1 :4
3. 2 :1
4. 1 :8

5. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation equal to 10% of the acceleration due to gravity. The maximum height will be decreased by: (Take g = 10 ms^-2)

1. 8%
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 11%

6. In a moving coil galvanometer, if the number of turns in the coil increase by 25%, the change in voltage sensitivity is:

1. zero
2. 1%
3. 25%
4. 50%

7. Two balls are thrown simultaneously in the air. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls while in the air.

1. depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
2. depends on the masses of the two balls
3. depends on the speeds of the two balls
4. is equal to g

8. A wire of length ‘l‘ and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

1. 52 Ω
2. 55 Ω
3. 60 Ω
4. 26 Ω

9. Three particles move along the three sides of a triangle, ABC, starting from the three vertices simultaneously. Each covers one side of the triangle and reaches the next vertex; all the particles reaching their destinations at the same time. Suppose that the particles move at constant velocities:  (see figure).

10. The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom is 1.5 (h/π) .The energy in the same orbit is nearly:

1. -1.5 eV
2. -1.6 eV
3. -1.3 eV
4. -1.4 ev

11. An iron ball (water equivalent = 10g) at100 and a brass ball (water equivalent = 15g) at 80  are dropped into 100 g of water at 28  Assume no loss of heat. The final temperature of the mixture will be:

1. 30
2. 40
3. 60
4. 70

12. In the figure shown, a river of width 4 km is flowing with a speed of 5 km/h. A swimmer whose swimming speed relative to the water is 4km / h starts swimming from point A on the bank. On the other bank, B is a point that is directly opposite to A. At what angle with the downstream the man should swim so that he reaches point B directly?


1. 90°
2. 120°
3. 150°
4. Not possible

13. A cubical block of mass M is at rest on a frictionless horizontal plane. A second block of mass m is placed atop the first, the coefficient of friction (static and kinetic) between them being 1/3. The upper block is pulled to the right by a horizontal force F. It is given that M = 2m.

It is observed that the two blocks move together. The force of friction between the blocks is;

1. 1/3 mg
2. 1/3  Mg
3. F/3 
4. 2F/3

14. The mean free path for a gas molecule depends upon the diameter,  of the molecule as:

1. l∝1/d²
2. l∝d
3. l∝d²
4. l∝1/d

15. A 250 turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA and subjected to the magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by against the torque is:

1. 4.55 μJ
2. 2.3 μJ
3. 1.15 μJ
4. 9.4 μJ

16. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A spherical equipotential surface is not possible for a point charge.
Reason (R): A spherical equipotential surface is possible inside an aspherical capacitor.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

17. A circular coil of radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 3.0× 10^-5 T with its plane perpendicular to the field initially. It is rotated at constant angular speed about an axis along the diameter of coil and perpendicular to magnetic field so that it undergoes half of rotation in 0.2 s. The maximum value of EMF induced (in μV) in the coil will be close to:

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

18. A simple pendulum is made with a thin wire (length: l, area: A, Young’s modulus: Y) attached to a heavy bob of mass M. The pendulum is released from the rest with the bob at the same level as the point of suspension and swings down in a circular are. The elongation in the wire when the bob reaches the lowest point is:

19. Two SHMs have equations:
x₁ = a sin (ωt + ∅₁) and x₂ = a sin (ωt + ∅₂) of the resultant SHM is equal to amplitude of superimposing SHM(s), the phase difference between them is:

1. π/6
2. 2π/3
3. π/4
4. π/3

20. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of a refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass with a refractive index 1.7.This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of the second prism should be:

1. 6°
2. 8°
3. 10°
4. 4°

20. Two blocks A & B are connected by a spring and placed on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in the figure. The spring is in its relaxed position. The block A is given a velocity of 1 m/s towards right. After some time, it comes to rest momentarily. The speed of block B is:


1. 1/3 m/s
2. 1/2  m/s
3. 1/4 m/s
4. none of the above

21. The electrostatic potential in a region of space is given by the function:
V(x)=A cos(2πx/a),where A, a are constants.
The potential at x=a/2 is:

1. zero
2. A
3. -A
4. A/2

22. On increasing the number density of a gas in a vessel, the mean free path of a gas:

1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. becomes double

23. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the adjacent figure. The average velocity is:


1. 1 ms^-1
2. 2 ms^-1 m/s
3. less than 1 ms^-1
4. greater than 2 ms^-1

26. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

      (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
1.   (iv)      (ii)         (i)        (iii)
2.   (ii)      (i)          (iv)      (ⅲ)
3.   (ii)      (iv)        (i)        (iii)
4.   (ii)      (iv)       (iii)       (i)

27. Two infinitely large plane parallel sheets carry uniform surface charge densities +σ,-σ and are placed a distance d The electric fields in the regions   are E₁, E₂, E₃ along the direction 2 which is perpendicular to the two planes. sigma, – sigma
Then:


1. E₁ < 0, E₂ > 0, E₃  < 0
2. E₁ < 0, E₂= 0, E₃ < 0
3. E₁ = 0, E₂ > 0, E₃  = 0
4. E₁  < 0,E₂  > 0, E₃  > 0

27. A heater coil is connected to a constant voltage source. If the heater wire is cut into two equal parts and one of these parts is connected to the same voltage source, how will the heat produced compared to the original heat produced by the entire coil?

1. halved
2. doubled
3. quartered
4. quadrupled

28. The work done during the cyclic process shown in the diagram is:


1. 4πP₀ V₀
2. -4πP₀ V₀
3. -πP₀ V₀
4. πP₀ V₀

29. The moment of inertia (I) of an orbiting electron in the n^th Bohr orbit, measured with respect to the nucleus, is proportional to:

1. n²
2. n³
3. n⁴
4. n⁶

32. The main scale of a vernier caliper has the least count of 1 mm. 20 divisions of the vernier scale coinciding with 19 divisions of the main scale. The vernier constant of the caliper is:

33. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:
B_y = 2×10^-7 sin(π×10³ x+3π×10¹¹ t)T
The wavelength is:

1. 1. π×10³ m
2. 2×10^-3 m
3. 2×10³ m
4. π×10^-3 m

34. A hydrogen atom (H) and a helium (He) atom, both have the same kinetic energy (they are non-relativistic). Their de-Broglie wavelengths are in the ratio: λ_H/λ_He =

1. 4
2. 1/4
3. 2
4. 1/2

35. For a uniform rectangular sheet shown in the figure, if I_o and I_o , be moments of inertia about the axes perpendicular to the sheet and passing through O (the centre of mass) and O’ (corner point), then:


1. I_o, = I_o
2. I_o, < I_o
3. I_o, > I_o
4. can’t say

36. Two rods having the same cross-section (area: A) are joined end-to-end and forces F, F are applied at the two ends, as shown.

The lengths of the rods (I & II) are L, 2L while the Young’s moduli are 2Y, Y respectively. Quantities associated with this system are mentioned in Column-1, while their values are indicated in Column-II but in a different order. Match them.


1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-I

37. A 20 kg block is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane by a constant force, which gives it an acceleration of 1 m/s² The block starts from rest. The power developed by the force after 10 s is:

1. 20 W
2. 200 W
3. 2000 W
4. 2 W

38. Consider a system in which the work done by external forces acting equals Joules and the potential energy decreases by 30 Joules. Which of the following statements is true?

1. There are definitely no “non-conservative” forces acting in this situation
2. At least one of the forces in this situation is ‘conservative” in nature
3. Work done by the “internal” forces would be -30 joules
4. Work done by the “internal” forces would be -40 joules

39. A clock S operates based on the oscillations of a spring, while a clock P operates based on pendulum motion. Both clocks run at the same rate on Earth. On a planet with the same density as Earth but twice the radius, which of the following will be true?

1. S will run faster than P.
2. P will run faster than S.
3. Both will run at the same rate.
4. Both will run at the same rate but different from their rates on Earth.

40. A narrow parallel beam of light is incident onto a spherical mirror, as shown; the beam making an angle of 2° with the principal axis (PO). The radius, PO, of the mirror is 30 cm.
The reflected beam of light is:


1. convergent
2. divergent
3. parallel
4. diffuse

41. A steel bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 2.5 A – m² and a mass of 6.6 × 10^-2 If the density of the material is 6.6 × 10³ kg -m^-3,the intensity of magnetisation of the magnet is;

1. 2.5 ×10⁵ A – m^-1
2. 2.5 ×10^-5 A – m^-1
3. 1.25 ×10⁵ A – m^-1
4. 1.25 ×10^-5 A – m^-1

42. A cup of water is placed in a car accelerating to the left at a constant acceleration a. There is a small air bubble inside the water. Which figure correctly illustrates the shape of the water surface and the direction of the air bubble’s motion?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

43. A straight conductor carrying current I splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is:

44. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and -Q respectively, are placed at a certain distance apart and the force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then the force between the charges becomes:

1. 4F/3
2. F
3. 9F/16
4. 16F/9

45. Which statements are true when a light ray strikes a surface at the polarizing angle?
(A) The reflected ray is at a right angle to the refracted ray.
(B) The angle of reflection exceeds the angle of incidence.
(C)The reflected light is polarised, with its electric field vector lying within the plane that contains both the incident and reflected rays.
(D)The reflected light is polarised, with its electric field vector oriented perpendicular to the plane containing both the incident and reflected rays.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (A) and (D) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A) and (C) only

CHEMISTRY

46. Assertion (A): For hydrogen, 2s & 2p orbitals have the same energy-
      Reason (R): For an atom of the same principal quantum number, s, p, d & f have the same energy.
In light of the above statements choose the answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

47. A nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO₂ to give an unstable compound B. On treatment with phenol, B forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C₁₂ H₁₀ N₂ O The structure of compound A is:

48. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol^-1) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol^-1) in 100 ml. of water at 27 °C The osmotic pressure of the solution is (R-0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1 )

1. 8.2 atm
2. 2.46 atm
3. 4.92 atm
4. 1.64 atm

49. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C), and formic acid (D) is:

1. B > A > D > C
2. B > D > C > A
3. A > B > C > D
4. A > C > B > D

50. Match the species in Column -I with the shape in Column-II.


1. (1) → (d), (2) → (a), (3) → (b), (4) → (c)
2. (1) → (b), (2) →(a), (3) →(c), (4) → (c)
3. (1) → (c), (2) →(a), (3) → (b), (4) →(c)
4. (1) → (c), (2) → (a), (3) → (b), (4) → (d)

51. Zwitter ion is formed when aniline is treated with:

1. Acetic anhydride in pyridine.
2. A mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid at low temperatures
3. Conc, sulphuric acid followed by heating at 200 °C
4. nitric acid at high temperature.

52. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic.
B. The highest oxidation number corresponds to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in Sc₂ O₃ to Mn₂ O₇
C. Basic character increases from V₂O₃ to V₂ O₄ to V₂O₅.
D. V₂O₄ dissolves in acids to give V₂O4^3-.
D. CrO is basic, but Cr₂O₃ is amphoteric.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only
2. A and E only
3. B and D only
4. C and D only

53. In a reaction,

A is

1. HgSO₄/H₂SO₄
2. Cu₂ Cl₂
3. H₃ PO₂ and H₂O
4. H⁺/ H₂ O

54. This reaction is a zero-order with respect to N₂
2N₂ O(g) → 2N₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
If the half-life for this reaction is 19.0 minutes and the initial concentration of N₂ O is 1.39 M. then the value of rate constant k is:

1. 0.0158 mol L^-1 min ^-1
2. 0.0263 mol L^-1 min ^-1
3. 0.0366 mol L^-1 min ^-1
4. 0.0526 mol L^-1 min ^-1

55. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: A Daniel cell consists of zinc and copper electrodes immersed in solutions of their respective salts.
Statement II: Mercury cell consists of zinc-mercury amalgam as the anode and a paste of HgO & carbon as the cathode.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

56. What is the stoichiometric coefficient of sulfur (S) in the balanced equation for the following reaction in acidic medium?
H₂ S(aq) + HNO₃ (aq) →NO(g) + S(s) + H₂ O(l)

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

57. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?


1. 2-Nitro-4-hydroxymethyl-5-aminobenzaldehyde
2. 3-Amino-4-hydroxymethyl-5-nitrobenzaldehyde
3. 5-Amino-4-hydroxymethyl-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
4. 4-Amino-2-formyl-5-hydroxymethylnitrobenzene

58. When 7.3 g of magnesium bicarbonate (Mg (HCO₃)₂) is decomposed by heating, how much carbon dioxide gas (in mL) is released at STP?

1. 1000 mL
2. 1120 mL
3. 2230 mL
4. 3240 mL

59. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26 which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of electron?

1. [Cr (CO)₆]
2. [Fe (CO)₅ ]
3. [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
4. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

60. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of 2 mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH?

61. When glucose is reduced with red phosphorous and HI, then n-hexane is formed. This reaction shows that glucose has:

1. A ring structure
2. A linear chain of six carbon atoms
3. Five-OH groups
4. -CHO group

62. First ionisation enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen because of:

1. More shielding of paired electrons in 2p orbital of oxygen.
2. Half-filled stable configuration of nitrogen.
3. More Z effective of oxygen.
4. Small atomic size of oxygen

63. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Mass and volume properties. are extensive
Reason (R): Mass/volume is also. an extensive property.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

64. Which of the following statements are not true about the following decomposition reaction?
2 KCIO₃  → 2KCl + 3O₂
a. Potassium is undergoing oxidation
b. Chlorine is undergoing oxidation
c. Oxygen is reduced
d. None of the species are undergoing either oxidation or reduction
The correct choice from the above is:

1. a, b and d
2. b, c and d
3. b, d and a
4. None of the above

65. What mass of glucose (C₆ H₁₂ O₆) must be dissolved in 1 liter of solution to make it isotonic with a 15 g/L solution of urea (NH₂CONH₂)? (Given: Molar mass in g mol^-1 C:12, H:1, O: 16, N:14)

1. 55 g
2. 15 g
3. 30 g
4. 45 g

66. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms a complex ‘A’.
The formula of A and hybridisation state of Al in ‘A’ is 4. respectively:

1. [Al (H₂ O)₆ ]³⁺ ,sp³ d²
2. [Al (H₂ O)₄ ]³⁺ ,sp³
3. [Al (H₂ O)₄ ]³⁺ ,dsp²
4. [Al (H₂ O) ]³⁺ , d² sp³

67. The correct statement regarding CH₄, NH₃, and H₂O is:

1. The H-C-H bond angle in CH₄ the H-N-H bond angle in and H-O-H bond angle in H₂O are, all, less than 90°
2. The H-O-H bond angle in H₂O is greater than the H-C-H bond angle in CH₄
3. The H-O-H bond angle in H₂O is less than the H-N-H bond angle in NH₃
4. The H-C-H bond angle in CH₄ is less than the H-N-H bond angle NH₃

68. The correct order of C-C bond lengths of the following molecules are:

1. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₄> C₆ H₆  > C₂ H₂
2. C₂ H₂ > C₂ H₄> C₆ H₆  > C₂ H₆
3. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₂> C₆ H₆  > C₂ H₄
1. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₆> C₆ H₂  > C₂ H₆

69. Match the species in Column-I with their corresponding hybridisation in Column-II:


Codes:
        A         B          C          D
1.    ii          iii          i           iii
2,    i          i            iii         ii
3,   iii         ii           ii          i
4,    i          iii         ii          iii

70. What is the name of the following reaction?


1. Friedel-Crafts reaction
2. Perkins reaction
3. Acetylation reaction
4. Schotten-Baumann reaction

71. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C₅H₁₀ yields acetone on ozonolysis?

1. 2-methyl-2-butene
2. 3-methyl-1-butene
3. cyclopentene
4. 2-methyl-1-butene

72. Which of the following law illustrates hydrogen and oxygen combination to form H₂ O₂ and H₂ O containing 5.93% and 11.2% hydrogen, respectively?

1. Law of conversation of mass
2. Law of constant proportion
3. Law of reciprocal proportion
4. Law of multiple proportions

73. Propene, CH₃ – CH = CH₂ can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Which set of reagents among the following is ideal to effect the conversion?

1. Alkaline KMnO₄
2. B₂ H₆ and alk. H₂ O₂
3. O₃/zinc dust
4. OsO₄/CHCl₃

74. Match the items of Column-I with items of Column-II:

Codes:
     A         B          C          D
1.  III       IV        I           II
2. I          II         III        IV
3. II        I           IV        III
4. IV       I           III        II

75. A reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

1. sec-Butyl alcohol
2. tert-Butyl alcohol
3. iso-Butyl alcohol
4. iso-Propyl alcohol

76. Assertion (A): Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
      Reason (R): The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires a high temperature.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

77. Match the reactions in List-I with their corresponding products in List-II:


1. A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
2. A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
3. A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
4. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

78. Limiting molar conductivity of (i.е., Λ⁰_m (NH₄ OH)) is equal to –

79. In the graph shown below, which point represents the condition for bond formation?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

80. In Williamson’s synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared by:

1. passing ethanol over heated alumina
2. heating sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide
3. treating ethyl alcohol with an excess of H₂ SO₄ at 430-440 K
4. heating ethanol with dry Ag₂O

81. The reason for not utilizing HCl to acidify the medium in oxidation reactions involving KMnO₄ (in an acidic environment) is:

1. Both HCl and KMnO₄ act as oxidizing agents.
2. KMnO₄ oxidizes HCl into Cl₂ which is also an oxidizing agent.
3. KMnO₄ is a weaker oxidizing agent than HCl.
4. KMnO₄ acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.

82. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The 19^th electron in the potassium atom enters into the 4s-orbital, not into the 3d orbital.
Reason (R): (n + 1) rule is followed for determining of the lowest energy state.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

83. In a 0.5 litre capacity vessel, CO and Cl₂ are mixed to form COCl₂. At equilibrium, it contains 0.2 mole of COCl₂ and 0.1 mole each of CO and The equilibrium constant (K_C) for the following reaction is: CO+Cl₂⇌COCl₂

1. 15
2. 5
3. 20
4. 10

84. Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards S_N2 reaction.
(I) CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ Cl
(II) CH₃ CH₂ CH(Cl)CH₃ 
(III) (CH₃)₂  CHCH₂ Cl
(IV) (CH₃)₃  CCl

1. (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
2. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
3. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
4. (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)

85. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:


1. II<III<IV<I
2. I<IV<III<II
3. I<IV<II<III
4. III<I<II<IV

86. Which of the following pairs is both isoelectronic and isotopic?
(Given: Atomic numbers: Ca = 20, Ar = 18, K = 19, Mg = 12, Fc = 26 and Na = 11)

87. The number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)₂ Cl₂]Cl will be:
en = ethylenediamine)

1. Two (2)
2. One (1)
3. Three (3)      
4. Four (4)

88. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is:
 

89. Match the compounds (given in Column I) with the oxidation state of Cobalt (given in Column II) and assign the correct code.


Codes:
       A         B          C          D
1.   2           3          4          1
2.  3           1           4          2
3.  1           4           3          2
4.  4           1           2          3

90. In the reaction sequence,
 
[X] will be:

91. The biological processes cyanobacteria in paddy fields include:
I: biological fixation of 𝐶𝑂2.
II: biological fixation of atmospheric dinitrogen.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

92. The importance of a promoter in transcription is to:

1. Terminate RNA synthesis.
2. Signal the RNA polymerase where to start transcription.
3. Modify the RNA after transcription.
4. Transport the RNA out of the nucleus.

93. Which of the following is true about chloroplasts?

1. They contain DNA, divide by binary fission, and have 70S ribosomes.
2. They lack DNA but divide by binary fission and have 80S ribosomes.
3. They contain DNA, do not divide, and have 80S ribosomes.
4. They lack DNA, do not divide, and have 70S ribosomes.

94. Consider the following statements:
I. The stored food in Rhodophyceae is floridean starch.
II. Cellulose and algin are present in the cell wall of Phacophyceac.
III. Chlorophyceae members have 2 laterally placed unequal flagella.
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

95. The PNS is divided into two divisions where:
I. The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
II. The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

96. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
2. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie parallel to each other in which each has an organisation like the cartwheel.
3. Centrioles are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein where each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet.
4. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub.

97. Aldosterone:

1. acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the excretion of Na+ and water and reabsorption of K + and phosphate ions.
2. acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K + and phosphate ions.
3. acts mainly at the collecting duct and stimulates the excretion of Na+ and water and reabsorption of K + and phosphate ions.
4. acts mainly at the collecting duct and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K + and phosphate ions.

98. In dicot stems, the endarch protoxylem arrangement indicates:

1. Xylem and phloem are arranged radially.
2. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
3. Xylem is situated towards the centre, with protoxylem facing inward.
4. Vascular bundles are closed.

99. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (A) (B) (C) (D)
1. (IV) (I) (II) (III)
2. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
3. (III) (I) (IV) (II)
4. (I) (IV) (III) (II)

100. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Assertion (A): Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds good for genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R). Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is not correct and (R) is not correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) isthe correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct

101. Identify the correct statement regarding the given figure?

I. ‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together during cell division.
II. B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure associated with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers attach during cell division to pull sister chromatids apart.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

102. Primary productivity in an ecosystem refers to:

1. The rate at which consumers produce organic material.
2. The amount of biomass produced by decomposers.
3. The rate at which producers synthesize organic material from inorganic substances.
4. The total amount of organic material available in the ecosystem.

103. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion: Often flowers of animal- pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of animal.
Reason: Plants were already widespread on land when animals invaded land.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason does not explain Assertion
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true

104. Norepinephrine:
a. is released by sympathetic fibers
b. is released by parasympathetic fibers
c. increases the heart rate
d. decreases blood pressure
Which of the above said statements are correct?

1. a and c
2. b and c
3. b and d
4. a and d

105. Regarding the temperature optimum for photosynthesis of different plants:
I. Tropical plants have a lower temperature optimum than the plants adapted to temperate climates.
II. The C4 plants respond to higher temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis while C3 plants have a much lower temperature optimum.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

106. The correct path of electron transport within Complex III of the mitochondrial ETS will be:

1. Cyt b → Fe − S → Cyt C1
2. Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Fe − S
3. Fe − S → Cyt b → Cyt C1
4. Cyt C1 → Fe − S → Cyt b

107. Identify the correct statements:
I. ADA deficiency is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
II. Bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy are completely curative.
III. Lymphocytes transformed with cADA gene are permanent cure for the condition.

1. Only I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

108. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and select the best match from the codes given:

Options

   A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R Q P S
3. R P Q S
4. Q R S P

109. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated by:

1. The concentration of ribosomes attached to the mRNA.
2. The presence of DNA polymerase at the transcription site.
3. Interaction with accessory proteins, which influence its ability to recognize start sites.
4. The activity of tRNA molecules during translation.

110. An example of mutualism between plants and insect pollinators will be:

1. Bees pollinate flowers while obtaining nectar, which is their food source.
2. Flowers provide shelter to insects, and insects provide nothing in return.
3. Insects eat parts of the flower, which helps the plant reproduce.
4. Plants capture and digest insects to obtain nutrients.

111. In frogs:

1. The blood lacks RBCs and few proteins, unlike lymph.
2. The hepatic portal system connects the liver to the kidneys.
3. The circulation of blood is achieved without the pumping action of the heart.
4. The blood is composed of plasma and cells, including nucleated RBCs containing haemoglobin.

112. The first polar body born out of first meiotic division during oogenesis:
I. may divide further
II. may degenerate

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

113. How is cytokinesis different in plant cells compared to animal cells?

1. A furrow appears in the plasma membrane of plant cells
2. Plant cells do not undergo cytokinesis
3. Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of a cell plate
4. Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by forming spindle fibers

114. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:

1. Gut of female Anopheles
2. Salivary glands of Anopheles
3. Human RBCs
4. Human liver

115. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active.
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome.
(d)Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (c), (e) only
2. (b), (d), (e) only
3. (a), (c), (d) only
4. (b), (e) only

116. How many statements regarding Ethylene are true?
I. It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and ripening fruits.
II. It promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs especially of leaves and flowers.
III. It enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the fruits.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

117. Identify the correct description of vascular bundle in dicot stems:

1. Vascular bundles are scattered throughout the stem with no specific arrangement
2. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with each bundle having a phloem on the outer side and xylem on the inner side
3. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with each bundle having a xylem on the outer side and phloem on the inner side
4. Vascular bundles are found only in the center of the stem, forming a solid core

118. Which pair of the given bacteria can commonly cause pneumonia in humans?

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus
2. Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. Pneumocystis carinii and Mycoplasma hominis
4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Bacillus anthracis

119. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Evolution can occur if there is genetic variation within a population.
Reason (R): The meaning of EVOLUTION is descent with modification from preexisting species.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

120. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationship between organisms.
Statement II: Taxonomy takes into account only some easily observable external characters of organisms.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

121. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of vocal sacs and a copulatory pad.
Statement II: Female frogs have vocal sacs and copulatory pads.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

122. What is the importance of sacred groves in biodiversity conservation?

1. They are spiritual sites where no biological activity occurs.
2. They serve as reservoirs of rich biodiversity, protecting endemic species.
3. They are used to cultivate medicinal plants using traditional methods.
4. They represent areas where invasive species are cultivated.

123. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovary wall in gymnosperms.
2. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
3. Horsetails are gymnosperms.
4. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

124. Which statement is true regarding mitochondria?

1. They are the site of glycolysis.
2. They contain their own DNA and ribosomes.
3. They are involved in the synthesis of fatty acids.
4. They are the primary site of protein synthesis.

125. Select the incorrect statement:

1. LH and FSH trigger ovulation in ovary.
2. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
3. LH triggers the secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
4. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis

126. Which statement accurately describes the types of muscle tissue and their differentiating features?

1. Skeletal muscle is involuntary and striated, cardiac muscle is voluntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated.
2. Skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated, cardiac muscle is involuntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated.
3. All muscle types are involuntary, but only skeletal and cardiac muscles are striated.
4. All muscle types are striated, but only skeletal and smooth muscles are voluntary.

127. How many of the given statements regarding ovaries are correct?
I: Ovaries are the primary female sex organs.
II: Ovaries produce the female gamete (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones).
III: Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
IV: Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

128. African sleeping sickness is caused by an infection with:

1. a dsDNA virus
2. a gran negative bacterium
3. a flagellated protozoan
4. a fungus

129. At a chemical synapse:
I. neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses.
II. the axon terminals contain vesicles filled with the neurotransmitters.
III. the released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

130. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G.?

1. T ∶ 20%, G ∶ 30%
2. T ∶ 30%, G ∶ 20%
3. T ∶ 30%, G ∶ 30%
4. T ∶ 20%, G ∶ 20%

131. How many of the given statements are correct?
A: Left atrium has the thickest musculature in the human heart.
B: SA node is located in the wall of the right atrium.
C: Right ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into aorta.
D: Heart is covered by a double-layered pericardium.
E: Left atrium receives deoxygenated blood through

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

132. Diaphragms, contraceptive devices used by the females, are
I: introduced into the uterus
II: placed to cover the cervical region
III: act as physical barriers for sperm entry
IV: act as spermicidal agents

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. Only III & IV are correct

133. The correct chronological steps [earliest to last] in the sexual cycle of fungi are:

1. Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores
2. Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
3. Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores
4. Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores

134. Select the favorable conditions required for the formation of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli.

1. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
2. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H +,, higher temperature
3. High pO2 , low pCO2 , less H + ,, lower temperature
4. Low pO2 high pCO2 more H + , higher temperature

135. The filiform apparatus plays a key role in:

1. The recognition of pollen grains by the pistil.
2. The production of male gametes within the pollen tube.
3. Protecting pollen grains from desiccation.
4. Guiding the pollen tube into a synergid.

136. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is important in the concentration of urine.
Reason (R): This segment is highly permeable to water, allowing for maximum water reabsorption.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

137. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where glucose is partially oxidized to produce energy.
Reason (B): Fermentation results in the production of ethanol or lactic acid without the use of oxygen.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

138. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa- sinensis) is:

1. Monadelphous
2. diadelphous
3. polyandrous
4. polyadelphous

139. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Intrapulmonary pressure must be greater than atmospheric pressure for air to enter the lungs.
Statement II: Intrapulmonary pressure must be lower than atmospheric pressure for air to be exhaled out of the lungs.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

140. The posterior pituitary gland is not a “true” endocrine gland because:

1. it is provided with a duct
2. it only stores and releases hormones
3. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
4. it secretes enzymes

141. Plant growth is considered unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. What is the primary reason behind this characteristic feature of plants?

1. Presence of specialized permanent tissues
2. Presence of meristems at specific locations in the plant body
3. Ability to perform photosynthesis continuously
4. Presence of vascular tissues for nutrient transport

142. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In apinnately compound leaf, several leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf(as in neem).
Statement II: In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.c., at the tip of the petiole (as in silk cotton).

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

143. Lactational amenorrhea, as a natural method of contraception, has been reported to be effective only up to a maximum period of:

1. one month following parturition.
2. two months following parturition.
3. three months following parturition.
4. six months following parturition.

144. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens reccives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

145. Dwarfism can be caused by the deficiency, during childhood, of:
I. Growth hormone
II. Thyroid hormones

1. Only I and the dwarf will have normal mental development
2. Only II and the dwarf will also be mentally retarded
3. Both I and II and in both cases the mental development will be affected
4. Both I and II and mental development will be effected only in II.

146. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae, and they are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.
Statement II: Diatoms have cell walls embedded with cellulose, which makes them indestructible and leads to the formation of diatomaceous earth.
 
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

147. Identify the correct statements:
I: Non-steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes.
II: Non-steroid peptide hormones enter the cell.
III: Steroid hormones do not bind to plasma membrane receptors.

1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only III
4. I, II and II

148. Why are the androecium and the gynoecium collectively termed as essential organs of a flower?

1. They are present in all types of flowers, including unisexual flowers.
2. They directly contribute to sexual reproduction by producing gametes.
3. Their primary function is to attract pollinators for reproduction.
4. They ensure vegetative reproduction by forming seeds.

149. Identify the correct statement:

1. Monocotyledonous plants generally have taproot systems with one or more primary and secondary roots.
2. The root hair zone develops in the region of elongation.
3. Roots that develop from a stem, leaf, or other plant part are called adventitious roots.
4. Apical meristem is found in the region of maturation

150. Regarding red algae:
I: Majority are fresh water with greater concentrations found in the colder areas.
II: They occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

151. The thoracic chamber is formed:

Select the correct match from the codes given:

   A B C D
1. Q P R S
2. Q P S R
3. P Q R S
4. P Q S R

152. DNA fingerprinting relies on the unique sequences present in an individual’s genome. Which specific type of DNA sequence is most commonly used in this technique?

1. Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs)
2. Exonic regions of protein-coding genes
3. Highly conserved sequences in the mitochondrial genome
4. Single-copy genes found in all individuals of a species

153. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is:

1. escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
2. providing more space for a large epididymis
3. providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
4. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

154. A person suffering from pneumonia is least likely to show/complain:

1. A rapid respiratory rate
2. High grade fever
3.Chest pain
4. Pain in abdomen

155. Lymph functions include all EXCEPT:

1. Transporting fats from the digestive tract
2. Returning excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream
3. Transporting oxygen to the brain
4. Fighting infections

156. Plants exhibit open growth due to the continuous activity of meristems. How do meristematic cells contribute to this type of growth?

1. They undergo repeated cell division and differentiate immediately after formation.
2. They retain their capacity to divide, and their derivatives contribute to the plant body.
3. They grow in size without dividing, allowing plants to expand indefinitely.
4. They remain undifferentiated and do not contribute to plant body formation.

157. What is the role of vasa recta in the juxtamedullary nephrons?

1. Reabsorption of urea
2. Maintaining the osmotic gradient for efficient water reabsorption
3. Transport of electrolytes to the glomerulus
4. Formation of primary filtrate in the nephron

158. In the systematic organization and classification of living organisms, the hierarchical structure known as the taxonomic hierarchy includes various levels of classification. Which among the following taxonomic ranks, positioned between the class and family, plays a crucial role in the precise identification and naming of species within the Linnaean system?

1. Phylum
2. Order
3. Genus
4. Species

159. What does polyembryony refer to?

1. Formation of a single embryo from two different pollen grains, e.g., apple
2. Development of multiple embryos from a single fertilized egg, e.g., citrus
3. Formation of an embryo without fertilization, e.g., wheat
4. Fusion of two embryos to form a single viable seed, e.g., maize

160. When compared to the adult red blood cells in human blood, the adult white blood cells are:
I: lesser in number
II: longer lived
III: nucleated

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

161. The nerve fibres that transmit impulses from tissues to the CNS are called____, while those that transmit impulses from the CNS to peripheral tissues are called________.

1. efferent fibres, afferent fibres
2. afferent fibres, efferent fibres
3. somatic fibres, autonomic fibres
4. sensory fibres, sympathetic fibres

162. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Smooth muscles are found in the walls of internal organs such as the stomach and intestines.
Reason (R): Smooth muscles are striated and voluntary.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

163. What would likely happen if a predator overexploits its prey population?

1. The prey population would increase rapidly.
2. The predator population would increase due to abundant food.
3. Both predator and prey populations could decline or become extinct.
4. The ecosystem would stabilize at a new equilibrium.

164. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: For most animal species, the logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.
Statement II: Animals show a higher mdiversity than plants.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

165. Which of the following organic molecule is not correctly matched with the diagrammatic representation of its structure?

166. Mary Mallon:

1. was the recipient of the first gene therapy.
2. was the last known case of small pox.
3. was a chronic carrier of Salmonella typhi.
4. was the first child born through IVF.

167. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:

    A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R P S Q
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S

168. The number of chromosomes in the male and female is/are not equal in:
I: Humans II: Honeybees
III: Grasshoppers IV: Drosophila

1. Only II
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, III and IV

169. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:

1. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
2. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
3. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
4. All of the above

170. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions.
Reason (R): Pteridophytes are terrestrial plants that possess vascular tissues − xylem and phloem.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A)
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

171. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are called floating ribs.
Reason (R): Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected both dorsally and ventrally.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains(A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

172. Which statement is true regarding transcription in prokaryotes?

1. RNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate transcription.
2. Transcription and translation can be coupled.
3. Introns are removed from the transcribed RNA before
4. Transcription occurs in the nucleus.

173. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The presence of gill slits and a tail in the early stages of development of an embryo indicates that it can develop only as a fish.
Reason (R): Embryos pass through the adult stages of other animals.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

174. Under normal physiological conditions:

1. Inspiratory reserve volume is less than expiratory reserve volume
2. Residual volume in a healthy male is about 2500 to 3000 ml
3. Functional residual capacity should be more than expiratory capacity
4. Total lung capacity + residual volume = Vital capacity

175. Which method is considered highly effective in preventing pregnancy and is also capable of protecting users from sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and HIV/AIDS?

1. Copper releasing IUDs
2. Oral contraceptives
3. Condoms
4. Hormone releasing IUDs

176. What is photophosphorylation?

1. The synthesis of ATP using light energy during photosynthesis.
2. The production of glucose directly from sunlight.
3. The splitting of water molecules to release oxygen.
4. The generation of ATP without the use of light.

177. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

1. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Lysosomes
2. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, and Lysosomes
3. The endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Lysosomes
4. The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes, and Vacuoles

178. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In Ascomycetes, sexual reproduction leads to the formation of spores called ascospores.
Statement II: These exogenously on specialized structures called basidia.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

179. Which of the following events does not take place during diakinesis stage of prophase 1 of meiosis I?

1. Terminalization of chiasmata
2. Meiotic spindle assembling to prepare separation of homologous chromosomes
3. Separation of the chromatin
4. Nuclear envelope breakdown and disappearance of nucleolus

180. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)