NEET REVISION TEST XVI (25.03.2026)

1. Consider a particle moving along a straight line under the action of a force which delivers constant power.

Assertion (A): If the velocity of the particle is doubled, its acceleration is halved.

Reason (R): The power delivered by the force equals the force × velocity which is a constant, and the acceleration is proportional to the force.

2. A parallel beam of light is brought to focus on its axis at F, by a lens, as shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is f. The intensity of the refracted beam is proportional to: (x is the distance from lens where intensity is measured)

3. If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

1. there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
2. there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
3. all bright fringes will be of equal width.
4. interference pattern will disappear.

4. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio of 1:25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern I_max /I_min is:

1. 9/4
2. 121/49
3. 49/121
4. 4/9

5. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is:

6. A small-signal voltage V(t)=V₀sin(ωt) is applied across an ideal capacitor C: Find the correct statement from the options given below:

1. over a full cycle, the capacitor C does not consume Jany energy from the voltage source
2. current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
3. current I(t) leads voltage V(t) 180°
4. current I(t) lags voltage V(t) 90°

7. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is projected vertically upward with a speed u. Acceleration due to gravity (g) acts downwards, while a uniform electric field E acts along the horizontal. The speed of the projectile’s impact on the horizontal is v, while the horizontal range is R. Then:

1. v² = u² + 2gR
2. v² = u² + 2gR(qE/mg)
3. v² = u² + gR
4. v² = u² + gR(qE/mg)

8. The following diagram represents three vectors of equal magnitudes in a plane.

What arrow best represents the direction of the sum of three vectors?

1. →
2. ←
3. ↑
4. ↓

9. A uniform rod AB, of mass 0.5 kg is connected radially to a uniform solid sphere of equal mass and radius 0.5 m.

The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through B, perpendicular to the rod, equals:

1. 3/8 kg – m²
2. 3/4 kg – m²
3. 3kg – m²
4. 3/2 kg – m²

10. A plane electromagnetic waveform given by:

11. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in wb) is given by the equation ϕ= 5t² + 3t + 60. The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at t = 4s will be:

1. 33 V
2. 43 V
3. 108 V
4. 10 V

12. The end ‘B’ of the circuit is earthed (V_B = 0) while a sinusoidal voltage is applied at ‘A’; V_A = V₀ sin ωt. The rms voltage across the capacitor C equals that across the upper resistor R (as shown in the figure). What is the phase difference between the current through the capacitor and the voltage across the capacitor when no current flows out at X?


1. 0°
2. 45°
3. 90°
4. 180°

13. If the length of a wire is doubled and its radius is halved compared to their respective initial values, then, Young’s modulus of the material of the wire will:

1. remain the same.
2. become 8 times its initial value.
3. become 1/4th of its initial value.
4. become 4 times its initial value.

14. A non-conducting circular ring is charged so that its upper half carries a charge q. while the lower half carries a charge 2q. The potential at the centre of the ring (radius R) is

15. An infinitely long straight line carries a uniform positive charge λ per unit length. A negative point charge (-q) moves in a circular path with the charge λ as its axis, under the action of its electric field. The kinetic energy of the point charge is:

16. A wall clock uses a vertical spring-mass system to measure the time. Each time the mass reaches an extreme position, the clock advances by a second. The clock gives the correct time at the equator. If the clock is taken to the poles it will:

1. run slow
2. run fast
3. stop working
4. give correct time

17. A metal rod of length 1 m is moving perpendicular to its length with 8 m/s velocity along the positive x-axis. A magnetic field B = 2T exists perpendicular to the plane of motion. The EMF induced between the two ends of the rod is:

1. 16 V
2. 0 V
3. 8 V
4. 4 V

18. Two identical uncharged capacitors are connected in series and a charge Q, passes from A to B. After this happen,

1. Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has no charge.
2. Both capacitors have charges Q each.
3, Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has charge (-Q).
4. Neither capacitor has any charge, as the charge has passed from A to B and left them.

19. In an exoergic nuclear reaction (i.e. energy is released in the reaction), let
1. E₁ total binding energy of initial nuclei
2. E₂ : total binding energy of final nuclei
3. A₁: total number of nucleons of initial nuclei
4. A₂ : total number of nucleons of final nuclei
Then:

20. A rocket is fired vertically upward with a speed of v_e/√2 from the Earth’s surface, where is escape velocity on the surface of Earth. The distance from the surface of Earth upto which the rocket can go before returning to the Earth is:
(given, the radius of Earth = 6400 km)

1. 1600 km
2. 3200 km
3. 6400 km
4. 12800 km

21. An ammeter having a resistance of 0.1 Ω can measure a maximum current of 2 A. To convert it into a voltmeter that can measure upto 50 V, one must add:

1. a resistance of 25 Ω in series
2. a resistance of 1/25 Ω in series
3. a resistance of 25 Ω in parallel
4. a resistance of 1/25 Ω in parallel

22. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is:

1. 1:2
2. 1:1
3. √2 :1
4. 1 / √2

23. A mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a certain initial velocity u. Which one of the following velocity-time (v-t) graphs represents the motion of the mass?

24. Three resistors having resistances r₁,r₂ and r₃ are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio dot i₃/i₁ of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is

25. Two projectiles are thrown at an angle of projection α and β with the horizontal. If α + β = 90°, then the ratio of the range of two projectiles on the horizontal plane is equal to:

1. 1:1
2. 2:1
3. 1:2
4. 1:3

26. A steel wire of length 3.2 m (Y_s = 2.0 × 〖10¹¹ N m^-2) and a copper wire of length 4.4 m ( = 1.1  10¹¹ N m^-2 ), both having a radius 1.4 mm, are connected end to end. When a load is applied, the net stretch of the combined wires is found to be 1.4 mm. The magnitude of the load applied, in Newtons, will be:
(use, π = 22/7)

1. 360
2 .180
3. 1080
4. 154

27. A bob of mass is suspended by a thread of length L. At the lowest point A (see figure) of its position, a horizontal velocity v₀ is imparted such that it completes a semicircular trajectory in the vertical plane. The minimum velocity imparted should be:


1. √5gL
2. √3gL
3. √gL 
4. √(gL/5)

28. The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier when switch S is open. The output voltage (V₀) pattern across R_L when S is closed:
 

29. If a stone is projected vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 10 m/s then its:
(take g = 10 m/s²)

1. Potential energy will be maximum at 0.5 s.
2. Kinetic energy will be maximum again at 1 s.
3. Kinetic energy = potential energy at a height of 2.5 m from the ground.
4. Potential energy will be minimum at 1 s.

30. The pressure experienced by a swimmer 20 m below the water surface in a lake is appropriately: (Given density of water – 10³ kgm^-3, g = 10 ms^-2 and 1 atm = 10⁵ Pa)

1. 1 atm
2. 2 atm
3. 3 atm
4. 4 atm

31. A uniform ring of mass M and radius R has a particle of mass m placed at its centre, as shown in the figure. The gravitational force exerted by the particle (mass: m) on the ring (mass: M) is:



1. proportional to Mm/R²
2. proportional to Mm/R³
3. proportional to Mm/R
4. zero

32. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A real gas behaves like an ideal gas at low pressures and high temperatures.
Reason (R): At low pressures & high temperatures, the intermolecular potential energy is much smaller than the kinetic energy of random motion of the molecules.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (B) is False but (R) is True.

33. A long straight wire carries 10 A dc current. An electron travels perpendicular to this wire at a distance of 0.1 m with velocity 5.0 × 10⁶m^-1. The magnitude of the force acting on the electron due to the current in the wire is:

1. zero
2. 0.6 × 10^-17 N
3. 1.6 ×10^-17 N
4. 2.2 × 10^-17 N

34. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω resistor to that in 200 Ω & resistor in a given time is

1. 4:1
2. 1:2
3. 2:1
4. 1:4

35. When two homogeneous bodies A, B are floated in water, they are found to be submerged differently. Both bodies have the same cross-section, and the exposed parts of both are of the same height L. Then:


1. Weight of A = 1/3 weight of B
2. Weight of submerged part of A = 1/2 weight of submerged part of B
3. Density of A = 3/4 the density of B
4. Weight of exposed part of A = weight of exposed part of B

36. The speed (s) of a car as a function of time (t) is shown figure. The distance travelled by the car in 8 seconds is:


1. 180 m
2. 60 m
3. 80 m
4. 18 m

37. The frequencies of the series-limit of the Lyman & Balmer series of lines are ( v_L and v_B) respectively. Then, the frequency ( v_L-v_B) belongs to:

1. Lyman series
2. Balmer series
3. Paschen series
4. none of the above

38. Match the entries in Column-I with their respective consequences in Column-II.


1. A-III; B-IV; C-III; D-I
2. A-IV: B-I, III; C-IV; D-II, III
3. A-I; B-III; C-IV; D-II
4. A-III; B-II, IV; C-II; D-I, II

39. A person with a mass of 80 kg is standing on the rim of a circular platform with a mass of 200 kg and rotating about its axis at a speed of 5 revolutions per minute (rpm). As the person moves toward the centre of the platform, what will be the platform’s new rotational speed (in rpm) once the person reaches its centre ?

1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12

40. A square loop of side length a, carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field B acting parallel to one of its sides. Then:

1. A net force acts on the loop, but no torque.
2. A torque acts on the loop, but no net force.
3. A force and a torque, both act on the loop.
4. neither a force nor a torque acts on the loop.

41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The de Broglie wavelength associated with a material particle depends on its charge and nature.
Statement II: The wave nature of particles in sub-atomic domain is significant and measurable.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

42. A light beam of frequency 1.4 × 10⁴ Hz in air encounters a surface of hydrogen peroxide (index of refraction = √2 ) stored in a vessel (as shown below).

What is the critical angle for this encounter?

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. none of the above

43. n₁ moles of an ideal gas at a temperature T₁ and n₂ moles of the same gas at a temperature T₂ are taken in two parts of the same insulated vessel with a partition between them. The partition is now removed. The final temperature is:

44. A particle moves with a speed v in a circle of radius R. The x-component of the average velocity of the particle in a half-revolution as shown in the figure, is:

45. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, the fractional decrease in radius is:

1. B/3P
2. 3P/B
3. P/3B
4. P/B

CHEMISTRY

46. An acid that forms an anhydride (X) on heating and an acid imide (Y) on strong heating with ammonia is:

47. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The freezing point of 0.05 M urea solution is different from that of 0.05 M sodium chloride solution.
Reason (R): The depression in the freezing point is directly proportional to the number of species present in the solution.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

48.
Product, Product is

49. What type of hydrogen bonding exists in the given structures (I) and (II), respectively?


1. Intermolecular H-boding & Intramolecular H-bonding
2. Intramolecular H-boding & Intermolecular H-bonding
3. Both are Intermolecular H-bonding
4. Both are Intramolecular H-bonding

50. Complete hydrolysis of RNA gives:

1. β-D-Ribose and phosphoric acid only
2. β-D-2-Deoxyribose and phosphoric acid only
3. β-D-Ribose, phosphoric acid, and nitrogen-containing heterocyclic compounds
4. β-D-2-Deoxyribose and nitrogen-containing heterocyclic compounds only

51. In the structure of diborane (B₂H₆), the hybridised state of B & the maximum number of atoms which are present in one plane, respectively, are:

1. sp² & 4
2. sp³ & 4
3. sp² & 6
4. sp³ & 6

52. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard Emf of the cell is found to be 0.295V at 25℃ The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25℃ will be:

1. 1 ×10^-10
2. 29.5 × 10^-2
3. 10
4. 1 × 10¹⁰

53. Choose the compound which has a maximum bond angle at nitrogen among the following:

54. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. SnF₄ is ionic in nature.
2. PbF₄ is covalent in nature.
3. SiCl₄ is easily hydrolysed.
4. GeX₄ (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX₂

55. Statement I: Order is applicable only for elementary reactions whereas molecularity is applicable for both elementary as well as complex reactions.
      Statement II: Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity.
In the light of the above statements, identify the correct option:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

56. An organic compound X on treatment with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ gives compound Y which reacts with I₂ and NaOH to form CHI₃. The compound X can be-

1. CH₃ OH
2. CH₃ CHO
3. CH₃ COCH₃
4. CH₃ CH(OH)CH₃

57. The following equilibrium are given

58. The correct stability order of the resonating structure of the given compound is:


 

1. A > B > C
2. B > A > C
3. C > A > B
4. B > C > A

59. A pair of ions that have the same electronic configuration among their constituent species is:

1. Sr³⁺, Cr³⁺
2. Fe³⁺ , Mn²⁺
3. Fe³⁺ , Co³⁺
4. Cr³⁺  , Fe³⁺

60. C₆ H₆ freezes at 5.5°C The temperature at which a solution of 10 g of C₄ H₁₀ in 200 g of C₆ H₆ will freeze is: (The molal freezing point depression constant of C₆ H₆ is 5.12 ℃/m .)

1. 2 ℃
2. 1 ℃
3. 6 ℃
4. 5 ℃

61. According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), the compound, among the following, that forms a colored complex is:

1. [Ti (H₂O)₆ ]⁴⁺
2. [Cr (NH₃)₆]³⁺
3. K [VF₆]
4. (NH₄)₂ [TiCl₆]

62. Example(s) of a pseudo-unimolecular reaction among the following is/are:

63. The incorrect order of stability of the compounds among the following is:

64. Which pair of oxides are acidic in nature?

1. B₂ O₃, CaO
2. B₂ O₃, SiO₂
3. N₂O, BaO
4. CaO, SiO₂

65. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): For each ten-degree rise in temperature, the specific rate constant nearly doubles.
Reason(R): Energy-wise distribution of molecules in a gas is an exponential function of temperature.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False, but (R) is True.

1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II

67. In humans, the main oxygen carrier in the blood is:

1. Hemocyanin
2. Proteins
3. Haemoglobin
4. Both microorganisms and haemoglobin.

1. sp³ to sp²
2. sp to sp
3. sp² to sp
4. sp to sp³

69. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. Actinoid contraction is greater for element-to-element than lanthanoid contraction.
2. Lanthanoids on reaction with H₂O give oxygen gas.
3. Ce (+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
4. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided

70. The major product (A) of the following reaction is:
 

71. Case Study
A halogen is more electronegative than carbon. Consequently, the two atoms do not share their bonding electrons equally, because a partial negative charge is formed on halogen and a partial positive charge on the carbon to which it is bonded. It is the polar-carbon halogen bond that causes alkyl halides to undergo substitution reactions.
There are two important mechanisms for the substitution reaction:
1. S_Nl: The carbon-halogen bond breaks heterolytically without any assistance from the nucleophile, forming a carbocation. The carbocation- an electrophile-then reacts with the nucleophile to form the substitution product
2. S_N2 : A nucleophile is attracted to the partially positively charged carbon (an electrophile). As the nucleophile approaches the carbon and forms a new bond, the carbon-halogen bond breaks heterolytically (the halogen takes both of the bonding electrons)
Which solvent, from the following, favors the S_N2 mechanism?

1. Non-polar solvent
2. Polar protic solvent
3. Polar aprotic solvent
4. All of the above

72. The most acidic compound among the following is:

73. Mg is present in:

1. Chlorophyll
2. Haemoglobin
3. Vitamin- B₁₂
4. Vitamin-B

74. The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is:

1. 2, 0, 0, 1/2
2. 2, 1, -1,+ 1/2
3. 3, 1, +1, 1/2
4. 3, 0, +2,  1/2

75. Which of the following reactions will not give primary amine?

76. At constant T and P, 5.0 L of SO₂ is reacted with 3.0 L of O₂ according to the following equation:
2 SO₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2SO₃ (g)
The volume of the remaining reaction mixture at the completion of the reaction will be:

1. 0.5 L
2. 8.0 L
3. 5.5 L
4. 5 L

77. Determine the enthalpy change for the specified reaction:
2H₂ O₂ (l) → 2H₂ O(l) +O₂ (g)
(Given the heat of formation of H₂O₂ (l) and H₂O(l) are 188 and – 286 kJ/mol respectively)

1. – 196 kJ/mol
2. 196 kJ/mol
3. 948 kJ/mol
4. –948kJ/mol

78. Assertion (A): for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is diluted.
      Reason (R): For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with a dilution of the solution.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

79. Compound


be differentiated by

(1) H₃O^⊕, Na
(2) H₃O^⊕ , Tollens’ test
(3) H₃ O^⊕, Fehling test
(4) All of these

80. Match the elements in Column I with their corresponding types in Column II.

Identify the correct match:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

81. A mixture of NH₄NO₃ and (NH₄)₂ HPO₄ contains 30.40% mass percent of nitrogen. What is the mass ratio of NH₄ NO₃ to (NH₄)₂ HPO₄ in the mixture?

1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 3:4
4. 4:1

82. The correct ‘spin only’ magnetic moments of [CoF₆]^3- and [Co(C₂ O₄)₃]^3- respectively, are:

1. 0 BM and 4.9 BM
2. 0 BM and 0 BM
3. 4.9 BM and 0 BM
4. 4.9 BM and 4.9 BM

83. Assertion (A): Na⁺ and Al³⁺ are isoelectronic but the magnitude of ionic radius of Al³⁺ is less than that of Na⁺ .
      Reason (R): The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell electrons in Al³⁺ is greater than that in Na⁺

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True and (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

84. Give test to differentiate (Bromobenzene) Ph-Br be and benzyl bromide (PhCH₂Br).

(1) (i) aq. KOH (ii) Na
(2) AgNO₃
(3) KMnO₄
(4) All these

85. Select the correct option based on the statements below:
Statement I: Pressure, molar heat capacity, density, mole fraction, specific heat, temperature, and molarity are intensive properties.
Statement II: Mass, internal energy, and heat capacity are extensive properties.

1. Both Statements I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
3. Both Statements I and II are false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

86. Which compound, upon reduction with lithium aluminium hydride, yields a secondary amine?

1. Nitroethane
2. Methylisocyanide
3. Acetamide
4. Methyl cyanide

87. Calculate moles of ICI and ICI₃ formed respectively if 25.4 g of and 14.2 g of CI₂ are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICI and:
[Given: Molecular mass of I₂ – 254, CI₂ -71]

1. 0.5 and 0.2
2. 0.1 and 0.1
3.0.1 and 0.3
4. 0.3 and 0.4

88. The following reaction can be classified as:


1. Dehydration
2. Williamson alcohol synthesis
3. Williamson ether synthesis
4. Dehydrogenation of alcohol

89. Consider the following reaction:
A₂ B₃  ⇌ 2A(g) + 3B(g)
If the initial concentration of A₂ B₃ (g) is C, what is the value of α?
(assuming α << 1 and K_eq is the equilibrium constant of the reaction)

90. Which of the following electronic configurations for ground state atoms is incorrect?

91. Which of the following is not a character of collenchyma tissue?

1. They provide mechanical support to the growing part of the plant
2. They occur in layers below epidermis in dicotyledonous plants
3. They consist of cells with thick corners due to cellulose deposition
4. They are usually dead and without protoplasts

92. During glycolysis, the step in which 3- phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate involves:

1. Utilization of NAD + as an oxidizing agent to form NADH + H +
2. Conversion of ATP to ADP.
3. Production of CO2 as a by-product.
4. Reduction of to FADH2

93. In an animal cell, hydrolases active at acidic pH are richly found in:

1. Lysosomes
2. Centrosome
3. Peroxisomes
4. Glyoxysomes

94. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): When carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidised, the RQ will be 1.
Reason (R): The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate used during respiration.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explains (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

95. Co-existence between competing species can be promoted by:

1. Resource partitioning
2. Periodic migration
3. Aestivation
4. Reproductive isolation

96. The growth of a root elongating at a constant rate will be represented by:


1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

97. Which vitamin, important for effective erythropoiesis, is added by LAB when it is used to convert milk into curd?

1. Vitamin D
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin E

98. In an ecosystem, a sparrow can function at multiple trophic levels. As a primary consumer, it eats seeds, while as a secondary consumer, it eats:

1. Fruits
2. Peas
3. Insects and worms
4. Tree bark

99. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

1. Medulla oblongata-Homeostatic control
2. Cerebellum-Language comprehension
3. Corpus callosum-Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
4. Cerebrum-Calculation and contemplation

100. Which of the following best describes the relationship between BOD and the polluting potential of sewage water?

1. BOD is inversely proportional to the polluting potential.
2. Higher BOD indicates higher polluting potential.
3. Lower BOD indicates higher organic content.
4. BOD is unrelated to polluting potential.

101. The restriction endonuclease enzymes have been isolated from:

1. Bacteria
2. Yeasts
3. Algae
4. Fungi

102. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA.
Reason (R): Plasmid is extrachrosomal DNA in Some bacteria

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

103. Which of the following best explains the reason form the unequal division of cytoplasm during oogenesis?

1. To ensure the ovum has sufficient nutrients and organelles for early development
2. To allow rapid meiotic divisions in the resulting polar bodies
3. To prevent the formation of additional follicles during each cycle
4. To reduce the likelihood of aneuploidy in the resulting gametes

104. Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol:

1. undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in cytosol itself by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvickinase.
2. undergoes reduction in cytosol itself by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
3. undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in mitochondrial matrix by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
4. undergoes oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondrial matrix by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic\ decarboxylase.

105. Identify the incorrect statement regarding mitosis:

1. Mitosis usually results in the production of haploid daughter cells with variable genetic complement.
2. The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.
3. Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
4. Mitosis replaces lost cells in multicellular organisms.

106. In lac operon, z gene codes for:

1. 𝛽 − galactosidase
2. Permease
3. Repressor
4. Transacetylase

107. A sheath of dense irregular connective tissue that groups muscle fibres into bundles or fascicles is called as:

1. Epimysium
2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium
4. Aponeurosis

108. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:


1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
3. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

109. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I

110. During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, protons accumulate in the thylakoid lumen. What is the primary reason for this proton gradient formation?

1. Protons are actively transported into the lumen from the stroma using ATP.
2. Protons are generated by splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane and transported across via electron carriers.
3. The NADP reductase enzyme pumps protons into the lumen while converting NADP⁺ to NADPH.
4. ATP synthase directly transfers protons from the ytoplasm into the lumen.

111. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: All three classes of algae possess cellulose in their cell walls.
Statement II: Rhodophyceae lacks flagella, whereas Chlorophyceae can have up to 8 flagella.
Statement III: Phaeophyceae stores food in the form of laminarin and starch.
 
1. Only Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Only Statement III is correct
4. All Statements are correct

112. Consider the given two statements:
I: Multiload 375 is a copper releasing contraceptive.
II: LNG 20 releases progesterone.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

113. Which tracing on the standard ECG leads to contraction of the ventricles during a cardiac cycle?

1. P wave
2. QRS complex
3. ST segment
4. T wave

114. A cross between tall plants was made resulting in offspring of tall and dwarf plants with ratio 3 : 1. The genotype (s) of both parents are:

1. TT and TT
2. Tt and tt
3. Tt and Tt
4. tt and tt

115. Gymnosperms lack:

1. Secondary growth
2. Vessels in their xylem
3. Albuminous cells
4. A dominant sporophyte

116. Consider the following statements regarding invasive species:
Statement I: The introduction of the Nile perch into Lake Victoria led to the extinction of several indigenous cichlid fish species.
Statement II: All introduced species in a native ecosystem will become invasive.
Choose the correct option:

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.

117. A diagram showing the axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D:


1. B- Synaptic connection; D – 𝐾+
2. A- Neurotransmitter; B- Synaptic cleft
3. C- Neurotransmitter; D- 𝐶𝑎++
4. A- Receptor; C- Synaptic vesicles

118. The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by:

1. Kary Mullis
2. Alec Jeffreys
3. Paul Berg
4. Thomas Cech

119. Assertion (A): The Organic farmer holds the view that eradication of pest is undersirable
        Reason (B) : Biocontrol is not a good strategy to control pest

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

120. Identify the correct statement regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer:

1. Oncogenes are genes that promote normal cell growth and division under all conditions.
2. Viral oncogenes are responsible for directly causing most types of cancers in humans.
3. Proto-oncogenes, when activated under certain conditions, can lead to the transformation of normal cells into cancerous cells.
4. Cellular oncogenes function to suppress cancerous growths in normal cells.

121. In the brainstem, which part connects the brain to the spinal cord and regulates functions like respiration and cardiovascular reflexes?

1. Midbrain
2. Cerebellum
3. Pons
4. Medulla oblongata

122. The simplest tubular excretory system is the flame cell system, which is found in the animals of the phylum:

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Annelida
4. Mollusca

123. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by:

1. Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2. Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3. Recombination between linked genes.
4. Jumping genes

124. The cell walls of diatoms are ‘indestructible’ as they are embedded with:

1. Silica
2. Chitin
3. Calcium
4. Raphides

125. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Vestigial structures can be considered evidence for evolution.
Reason (R): Vestigial structures are often homologous to structures that are functioning normally in other species.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

126. Which one of the following statement with regards to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

1. Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
2. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
3. Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
4. Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes

127. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments produced by restriction enzyme digestion:

1. will move towards a node with smaller fragments moving farther than the larger segments
2. will move towards anode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments
3. will move towards cathode with smaller fragment moving farther than the larger segments
4. will move towards cathode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments

128. The two key concepts of the Darwinian Theory of Evolution are:

1. Branching descent and natural selection
2. Saltation and Catastrophism
3. Use and disuse of organs and inheritance of acquired traits
4. Reproductive isolation and Founder effect

129. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chlorella is used as food supplement by space travellers
Statement II: Chlorella is a unicellular algae

1. Both I and II are true and II correctly explains I
2. I is true and II is false
3. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
4. Both I and II are false

130. Consider the two statements:
Assertion(A): Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane leads to the synthesis of ATP.
Reason(R): The gradient is broken down due to the movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma through the transmembrane channel of the CF0 of the ATP synthase.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

131. During muscle contraction, the part that retains its length is labelled as:


1. 2
2. 1
3. 6
4. 7

132. The extinct human who lived 100000 to 40000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was:

1. Homo habilis
2. Neanderthal human
3. Cro-Magnon humans
4. Ramapithecus

133. RNA polymerase III is not responsible for transcription of:

1. tRNA
2. 5srRNA
3. snRNAs
4. 5.8srRNA

134. Pteridophytes are considered important in the plant kingdom because they were the first plants to:

1. Develop seeds
2. Form flowers
3. Develop vascular tissue
4. Produce fruits

135. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Agro-chemical based agriculture is not a suitable method for increasing food production worldwide in the future.
Statement II: Agrochemicals are often too expensive for farmers in the developing world.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

136. Alien species invasion often leads to:

1. An increase in the genetic diversity of native species.
2. Improved ecosystem services.
3. Significant disruptions in the native ecosystem.
4. Stabilization of the affected ecosystems

137. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?

1. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
2. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
3. Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
4. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane

138. Assertion (A): The thymus and the bone marrow constitute the primary lymphoid organs.
        Reason (R): The thymus and the bone marrow are the sites of lymphocyte activation by antigens.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

139. Exophthalmos is an important clinical sign seen in a person suffering from:

1. Excess of thyroid hormones
2. Deficiency of thyroid hormones
3. Excess of adrenal hormones
4. Deficiency of adrenal hormones

140. Genetics deals with:
I: the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny.
II: the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

141. Matching Type Match the type of interaction with its corresponding example:


1. A-2, B-1, C-3
2. A-1, B-3, C-2
3. A-3, B-1, C-2
4. A-1, B-2, C-3

142. The malarial paroxysm is characterized by chills and high-grade fever. This is associated with-

1. Rupture of liver cells when the parasite multiplies in the liver cells
2. Inoculation of the sporozoite by the mosquito into human blood
3. Release of hemozoin due to rupture of RBC by the parasite
4. Development of the adult trophozoite in the RBC

143. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:

1. Plasticity
2. Maturity
3. Elasticity
4. Flexibility

144. Regarding various levels of protein structure, which of the following is not true?

1. The positional information of amino acids in a protein is called the primary structure.
2. Alpha helix is a secondary structure and beta pleated sheet is a tertiary structure of a protein.
3. Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of proteins.
4. Quaternary structures are seen in proteins made of more than one polypeptide chain.

145. Rust and smut fungi belong to the fungal class:

1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. Basidiomycetes

146. Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver?

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Growth hormone
4. Thyroxine

147. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about:

1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
4. 90 %

148. In a healthy human, under normal physiological conditions the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic [oxygenated blood] circulation is:

1. about 104 mm Hg
2. about 40 mm Hg
3. about 95 mm Hg
4. about 159 mm Hg

149. Which letter in the given figure represents the lactiferous duct?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

150. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through _______ and then enters one of the _____________ through filiform apparatus.

1. Chalaza; Synergids
2. Micropyle; Antipodals
3. Micropyle; Synergids
4. Chalaza; Antipodals

151. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA content in G1 phase, what would be the corresponding values at the end of the S phase?

1. 2N, 2C
2. 4N, 2C
3. 2N, 4C
4. 4N, 4C

152. Embryological support for evolution, proposed by Ernst Heckel, was disapproved by:

1. Charles Lyell
2. Georges Cuvier
3. Charles Darwin
4. von Baer

153. Regarding IUDs:
a: They are effective contraceptives
b: IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c: IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d: IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

1. Only a and b are correct
2. Only c and d are correct
3. Only a and c are correct
4. Only b and d are correct

154. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The problem of classification becomes tougher as one ascends in the taxonomic hierarchy.
Reason (R): Higher taxonomic categories are more complex, incorporating diverse members with fewer common characteristics.
 
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

155. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick:

1. The two strands have anti-paralle polarity
2. A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
3. The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
4. The two strands are coiled in a left-handed fashion

156. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Relaxation of the diaphragm and the inter-costal muscles brings about inspiration.
Reason (R): Relaxation of the diaphragm and the inter – costal muscles leads to an increase in intra – pulmonary pressure to slightly above the atmospheric pressure.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

157. At maturity, the female gametophyte in angiosperms has:
I: Three cells grouped together at the micropylar end constituting the egg apparatus
II: Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

158. Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion:

1. conducted to and from the tissues by a network of tubes.
2. over their entire body surface.
3. using their moist cuticle.
4. across the gills.

159. How many of the given genetic disorders are due to mutations in autosomal genes?
I: Sickle cell anaemia
II: Thalassemia
III: Phenylketonuria
IV: Haemophilia

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

160. Organisms belonging to the same Class in taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the same:

1. Order
2. Family
3. Genus
4. Phylum

161. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as:

1. Coleorrhiza
2. Scutellum
3. Coleoptile
4. Epiblast

162. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Insulin is a polymer of fructose.
2. Cellulose is a homopolymer
3. Starch is a homopolymer
4. Chitin is nitrogen containing complex polysaccharide

163. What is a limitation of ecological pyramids?

1. They always show producers at the bottom and top consumers at the top.
2. They show inverted numbers when depicting energy flow.
3. They can only depict energy, not matter.
4. They do not account for decomposers.

164. The onset of puberty:
I: in males is due to secretion of GnRH by the hypothalamus.
II: in females is due to secretion of GnIH by the hypothalamus.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrec

165. Which of the following is/are a correct match?


1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

166. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

1. 125 beats per minute
2. 50 beats per minute
3. 75 beats per minute
4. 100 beats per minute

167. The differentiation of the inner cell mass into ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm is important because:

1. It leads to the formation of the placenta.
2. It triggers the release of oxytocin for parturition.
3. These layers give rise to all tissues and organs in the adult body.
4. It ensures the proper development of the umbilical cord.

168. Consider the given two statements:
I: Sweet potato and potato are examples of homologous organs.
II: Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita are analogous organs.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrec

169. The axoplasm inside the axon contains:
I: low concentration of K+
II: high concentration of negatively charged proteins
III: high concentration of Na +

1. Only I and III
2. I, II and III
3. Only II
4. Only I and II

170. Which of the following can lead to acromegaly?

1. Hypoadrenalism
2. Hyperadrenalism
3. Hypercortisolism
4. Hyperpituitarism

171. Neanderthals:

1. had a cranial capacity of about 1000 cc
2. lived in Africa, some 200000 to 400000 years ago
3. used hides to protect their bodies
4. never buried their dead

172. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

173. The taxonomic category – Order Primata – includes all of the following animals except:

1. Monkey
2. Gorilla
3. Gibbon
4. Tiger

174. The molecule shown below is a/an:


1. Amino acid
2. Lipid
3. Polysaccharide
4. Protein

175. Cardiac output is

1. Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in each cardiac cycle
2. Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute
3. 5 litres in a healthy individual
4. Both (2) and (3)

176. When compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells:

1. are smaller and generally divide at a slower rate.
2. are smaller and generally divide at a faster rate.
3. are smaller and generally divide at a similar rate.
4. are larger and generally divide at a slower rate.

177. Crossing over:
I: is the exchange of genetic material between two sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes.
II: is an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
III: leads to recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes.
IV: is completed by the end of pachytene, leaving the chromosomes linked at the sites of crossing over.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

178. What characterizes the secondary structure of proteins?

1. It is the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
2. It includes α-helices and β-pleated sheets formed by hydrogen bonds.
3. It represents the overall threedimensional structure of a single polypeptide.
4. It involves interactions between different polypeptide chains or subunits.

179. The structure shown in the given figure is a part of:


1. Tendon
2. Ligament
3. Cartilage
4. Bone

180. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Morphine should not be rountinely used in patients with mild to moderate pain
Reason (R): Morphine increases sensitivity to pain.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)