NEET REVISION TEST VI (11.02.2026)

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Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST VI (11.02.2026)

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PHYSICS

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2. Two particles move along the positive x-axis, starting from the origin. One (A) moves with a constant velocity while the other (B) moves with a constant acceleration, but no initial velocity. Then:

1. A is always ahead of B.
2. B is always ahead of A.
3. A is initially ahead, but B overtakes it.
4. B is initially it ahead, but A overtakes it.Deselect Answer

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3. A boat has a constant velocity of 6 km/h in still water. A river is flowing at a speed of 2 km/h. What is the time taken by the boat to make a trip of 4 km upstream and 4 km downstream in the river?

1. 3/2 h
2. 3/4 h
3. 5/2 h
4. 2 h

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4. Wavelengths of light, λ₁ = 700 nm and λ₂ = 400 nm are used in a standard double-slit experiment. Both the slits emit light, in phase with each other.
If the fringe widths corresponding to λ₁ , λ₂ are δ₁ , δ₂ then:

1. δ₁= δ₂
2. δ₁= 2δ₂
3. 2δ₁< δ₂
4. δ₁< 2δ₂

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6. In an AC circuit, the voltage and current are given by:
V = 100sin(100t) volts &
I = 100sin (100t + π/3) milliamperes (mA)
The average power dissipated per cycle in the circuit is:

1. 10⁴ watts
2. 10 watts
3. 2.5 watts
4. 5 wattsDeselect Answer

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7. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in the vacuum (c), and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are the three fundamental constants. Which of the following. combinations of these has the dimension of length?

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8. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200 V. After this, their de-Broglie wavelengths are λ_α and λ_p The ratio λ_p/λ_α is:

1. 3.8
2. 8
3. 7.8
4. 2.8

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9. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine (Carnot heat engine) working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is:

1. 26.8%
2. 20%
3. 6.25%
4. 12.5%

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10. A particle at rest explodes into two fragments of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁> m₂) which move apart with non-zero velocities. If λ₁ and λ₂ are their de-Broglie wavelengths respectively, then:

1. λ₁> λ₂
2. λ₁< λ₂
3. λ₁= λ₂
4. Insufficient data to arrive at the answer

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11. A vertical wire 5 m long and 8 × 10^-3 cm² cross-sectional area has Young’s modulus = 200 Gpa (as shown in the figure). What will be the extension in its length, when a 2 kg object is fastened to its free end?

1. 0.625 mm.
2. 0.65 mm
3. 0.672 mm
4. 0.72 mm

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12. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3^rd orbit to the 2^nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4^th orbit to the 3^rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be:

1. 16/25 λ
2. 9/16 λ
3. 20/7 λ
4. 20/13 λ

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13. Six identical small liquid drops, each falling with a terminal velocity of 10m / s coalesce to form a single larger spherical drop. Assuming the drops fall through the same viscous medium under gravity and obey Stokes’ law, what will be the terminal velocity of the larger drop?

1. 10 × (6)^1⁄3 m/s
2. 10 × (6)^2⁄3 m/s
3. 5 × (3)^2⁄3 m/s
4. 10 × (6)³ m/s

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14. The capacitance between two close parallel metallic plates (plate area: A, separation: d; d being small), where half of the space between them is filled by a dielectric of dielectric constant K, is (see figure):

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15. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: An intrinsic semiconductor behaves as an insulator at zero temperature.
Statement II: For insulators E_g > 3eV, for semiconductors E_g is 0.2 eV to 3eV, while for metals E_g ≈ 0.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement 1 is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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16. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): In the Wheatstone Bridge shown in the figure, if the resistances in opposite arms are switched (i.e. Q, R are exchanged) then the bridge remains balanced if it was initially balanced
Reason (R): The balance condition P/Q= R/S is not affected if resistances in opposite arms are switched.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is then correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

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17. The position of a particle is given by:

, where t is in seconds and r in metres. Find the magnitude and direction of the velocity v(t) at t = 1s, with respect to the x-axis

1. 4√2 ms^-1, 45°
2. 4√2 ms^-1, 60°
3. 3√2 ms^-1, 30°
4. 3√2 ms^-1, 45°

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18. A block is placed on a smooth horizontal surface, and forces are applied to it as shown in the diagram. Take g = 10 m/s². The normal reaction acting on the block is:

1. 100 N
2. 60 N
3. 40 N
4. 20 N

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19. A particle is projected at a time t = 0 with a speed v_o and at an angle with the horizontal in a uniform gravitational field. Then which of the following graphs represents power delivered by the gravitational force against time (t)?

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20. A cavity is made within a solid, shaped in the form of a cube. The cavity is also cubical and centred within the solid. The temperature of the solid is raised. The volume of the cavity:

1. increases by the same fraction as the cube
2. increases by a lower fraction than the cube
3. decreases
4. remains the same

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21. A large truck, traveling due south with speed v, collides with a small car traveling due north with the same speed v. After the collision, the car moves due cast, with the same speed it had prior to the collision. What can you conclude about the final velocity of the truck?

1. It points southwest.
2. It points southeast.
3. It points south.
4. It points west.

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22. A transmission line supplies input power at 2200 V to a step-down transformer with a primary winding of 1000 turns. To obtain an output power at 220 V, the number of turns in the secondary winding is:

1. 50
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 2000

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23. In a vernier callipers, (N + 1) divisions of the vernier scale coincide with N divisions of the main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

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24. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 × 10^-7 C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(1/4πϵ₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N-m²/C²)

1. 1.28 ×10⁵ N/C
2. 1.28 ×10⁶ N/C
3. 1.28 ×10⁷ N/C
4. 1.28 ×10⁴ N/C

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25. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the separation between the two slits is doubled while the slit-screen separation is also doubled. The fringe-width:

1. is doubled
2. is four times
3. remains same
4. is halved

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26. An ideal gas (γ =1.51) is expanded adiabatically. How many times has the gas to be expanded to reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules 2.0 times?

1. 4 times
2. 16 times
3. 8 times
4. 2 times

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27. A person sitting on the ground floor of a building notices through the window, of height 1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof of the building crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is the velocity it is at the topmost point of the window? (g = 10 m/s²)

1. 15.5 m/s
2. 14.5 m/s
3. 4.5 m/s
4. 20 m/s

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28. The velocity of a particle depends upon the time t according to the equation:

The physical quantities are represented by a, b, c and d are in the order:

1. distance, distance, acceleration, time
2. distance acceleration, distance, time
3. acceleration, distance, distance, time
4. none of the above

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29. A ball is projected with a velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:

1. 10 m/s
2. zero
3. 5√3 m/s
4. 5 m/s

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30. Two point charges − q and + q are placed at a distance of L as shown in the figure.

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R >> L) varies as:

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31. If a convex lens and a concave lens, both having the same magnitude of power, are placed back-to-back close to each other the resulting combination will:

1. behave as a converging lens, if the convex lens faces incident light
2. behave as a diverging lens, if the convex lens faces incident light
3. not converge or diverge parallel beams
4. shift the direction of incident beam

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32. Identify the function which represents a non-periodic motion?

1. e^-ωt 2. sinωt
3. sinωt + cosωt
4. sin⁡(ωt+π/4)

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34. Which of the following statements is true about the velocity of a pendulum bob at its lowest point?

1. It increases as the mass of the bob increases.
2. It decreases as the initial displacement angle increases.
3. It increases as the cord length increases, given the same initial displacement angle of the pendulum.
4. It decreases as the cord length increases, given the same initial displacement angle of the pendulum.Deselect Answer

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35. The magnetic force per unit length acting between two long parallel current carrying wires carrying currents i₁, i₂ and separated by a short distancer is proportional to:

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36. The surface of a household radiator has an emissivity of 0.55 and an area of 1.5 m². Its equilibrium temperature is 50°C while the surroundings are at 22°C (Stefan-Boltzmann constant, σ = 5.67 × 10^-8 W / m² K⁴) Match the items in Column-1 with their corresponding values in Column-II.

Codes:
A         B          C
1. Q P          R
2. P R Q
3. Q R          P
4. R P Q

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37. The SI unit of inductance, known as Henry, can be expressed in different ways. Which of the following options correctly represents Henry?
(A) Weber/ampere
(B) Volt-second/ampere
(C) Joule/ampere²(D) Ohm-second
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

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38. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Two separate lamps cannot produce a stable, visible interference pattern on the screen, even if they emit monochromatic light of identical wavelengths.
Reason (R): Any two ordinary lamps are not coherent, even though they emit light of the same wavelength.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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39. A planet of uniform density has a narrow frictionless tunnel (AB) along its diameter (2R). The acceleration due to ‘gravity’ on the surface of the planet is g.
A particle is dropped from A (the entrance) into the tunnel. What will be its acceleration, when it has travelled 1/3 of the distance towards the centre?

1. g/3
2. 2g/3
3. 9g
4. 9g/4

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40. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion, oscillating vertically. The graph of its height y as a function of time t is provided. At what time t does the particle achieve its maximum positive acceleration?

1. 1s
2. 2s
3. 3s
4. 4s

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41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Permeability of a paramagnetic substance decreases when temperature is increased.
Statement II: As temperature increases, random molecular motion increases and molecular magnets become more randomly oriented.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement 1 is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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42. Assume that a space shuttle flies in a circular orbit very close to the Earth’s surface. Taking the radius of the space shuttle’s orbit to be equal to the radius of the earth (R) and the acceleration due to gravity to be g, the time period of one revolution of the space shuttle is (nearly):

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43. A convex lens of focal length, f and refractive index, μ_g is immersed in a transparent liquid having a refractive index, μ_l. If μ_l> μ_g ,then

1. f will not change
2. f will increase
3. convex lens will behave as a diverging lens (concave lens)
4. convex lens will behave as a glass slab

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44. A block A (of mass m) is attached to an ideal spring of spring constant k; the spring being connected to a fixed wall on the other side. The spring is initially compressed by moving the block to the left of its mean position by x_o, and the system is released. There is no friction anywhere. The work done, by the spring on the block after its release until it reaches the mean position is

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45. The equivalent resistance of the circuit between O and A is:

1. 12R/13
2. R/13
3. 5R/13
4. 15R/13

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CHEMISTRY

46. What is the correct order of acidity among the following?

1. c>d>a>b
2. b>a>d >c
3. a>b>c>d
4. b>c>a>d

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47. One mole of N₂O₄(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N₂O₄(g) decomposes to NO₂(g).
The resultant pressure will be:

1. 1.0 atm
2. 2.4 atm
3. 2.0 atm
4. 1.2 atm

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48. In a reaction with second-order kinetics where molecules X convert to Y, increasing the concentration of X to three times its original value will affect the rate of Y formation by which factor?

1. 6 times
2. 9 times
3. 12 times
4. 3 times

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49. The mechanism of an S_N1 reaction is given as:

A student writes general characteristics based on the given mechanism as:
A. The reaction is favoured by weak nucleophiles.
B. R^⊕ would be easily formed if the substituents are bulky.
C. The reaction is accompanied by racemization.
D. The reaction is favoured by non-polar solvents.
Which observations are correct?

1. (A) and (B)
2. (A) and (C)
3. (A), (B) and (C)
4. (B) and (D)

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The value of a will be:

1. -2
2. -1
3. 1
4. 2

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51. Match column I (Reactions) with column II (Products obtained from reactions given in column I) and mark the appropriate choice:

1. (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) →(iv)
2. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
3. (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
4. (A) → (iii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D) → (ii)

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52. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: If the ionisation potential of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the first excited state energy of He⁺ ion will be 13.6 eV.
Statement II: According to the prediction of simple molecular orbital theory, the bond orders of the He₂⁺ and the H₂⁺ ion are the same.

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect.

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53. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Both 106 g of sodium carbonate and 12 g of graphite have the same number of carbon atoms.
Reason (R): Both 106 g of sodium carbonate and 12 g of graphite contain 1 g atom (1 mole) of carbon atoms.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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54. Assertion (A): All halogens are coloured.
Reason (R): Halogens absorb visible light.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

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55. An aqueous solution of hydrogen sulphide shows the equilibrium,
H₂S ⇌ H⁺ + HS^–If dilute hydrochloric acid is added to an aqueous solution of hydrogen sulphide without any temperature change, then:

1. The equilibrium constant will change
2. The concentration of HS^– will increase
3. The concentration of undissociated hydrogen sulphide will decrease
4. The concentration of HS^–will decrease

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56. [MnCl₆]^3- , [FeF₆]^3- and [CoF₆]^3-The number unpaired electrons in the above-mentioned high-spin complexes will be respectively:

1. 5,4,4
2. 4,4,5
3. 4,5,4
4. 5,4,5

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57. What is the unit of molar conductivity?

1. Ω^-1 cm^-2 mol^-1
2. Ω cm^-2 mol^-1
3. Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1
4. cm^-2 mol

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58. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs of complexes?

1. (i) Ionisation (ii) Hydrate
2. (i) Linkage (ii) Hydrate
3. (i) lonisation (ii) Linkage
4. (i) Linkage (ii) Coordination

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59. 4 L of dinitrogen reacts with 22.7 L of dioxygen to produce 45.4 L of nitrous oxide as per the reaction:
2N₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2N₂O(g)
Which of the following statements regarding this reaction are correct?
(a) The reaction follows the Law of Gaseous Volumes.
(b) The volume ratio of reactants (N₂:O₂) is 2:1.
(c) The reaction violates the Law of Conservation of Mass.
(d) The product N₂O has a volume equal to the volume of O₂Options:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (c) and (d)

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60. Under which scenario does the given equation balance?

1. a = 2, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3
2. a = 4, b = 2, c = 6 and x = 6, y = 2, z = 3
3. a = 6, b = 4, c = 2 and x = 6, y = 3, z = 2
4. a = 1, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3

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61. Consider the following resonating structures for nitrogen(I) oxide:

Correct resonating structure(s) is/are:

1. A and C
2. Only A
3. A and B
4. C and D

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(1) Ph-O-SO₂ OMe
(2) PhOMe
(3) PhOSO₂OPh
(4) PhMe

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63. Assertion (A): There is no effect on equilibrium constant if inert gas is added to the reaction A_(g) +B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) Reason (R): Equilibrium constant changes only with temperature.
In light of the above statements choose answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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64. An unknown compound A has a molecular formula C₄H₆. When A is treated with excess of Br₂ a new substance B with formula C₄H₆Br₄ is formed. A forms a white ppt. with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution. A may be-

1. But-1-yne
2. But-2-yne
3. But-1-ene
4. But-2-ene

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66. Among the following pairs of complexes, in which case is the ∆₀ value higher for the first species:

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67. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as follows
H₂ SO₄+2NaOH →Na₂ S0₄+2H₂O

When IL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with 1 L of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium sulphate formed and its molarity in the solution obtained are respectively-

1. 0.1 M, 7.10 g
2. 7.10g, 0.025M
3. 0.025 M, 3.55 g
4. 3.55g, 0.25MDeselect Answer

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68. In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and product (P) are:

1. R = H_2(g) , O_2(g) ; P = H₂ O_2(g)
2. R = H_2(g) , O_2(g) ; P = H₂ O_2(l)
3. R = H_2(g) , O_2(g) ; Cl_2(g) ; P = H₂ O_2(g)
4. R = H_2(g) , N_2(g) ; P = NH₃ _(aq)Deselect Answer

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69. The correct structure of 3-ethynyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid among the following is:

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70. A 100 ml. water sample from a polluted lake contains 21.2 mg of Arsenic (As). The concentration of arsenic in ppm in the lake is: (Given: Density of water=1g /mL)

1. 212000 ppm
2. 212 ppm
3. 2120 ppm
4. 21.2 ppmDeselect Answer

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71. Which of the following expression is correct for the reaction given below?
2HI_(g)→ H_2(g) + I_2(g)Deselect Answer

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72. The molecular shapes of SF₄, CF₄, and XeF₄ are:

1. Different with 1, 0, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively
2. Different with 0, 1, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively
3. The same with 1, 1, and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
4. The same with 2, 0, and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atom, respectivelyDeselect Answer

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73. IP₂ and IP₂ for Mg are 178 Kcal mol^-1 and 348 Kcal mol^-1 , respectively. The energy required for the reaction. Mg →Mg²⁺ +2e^– be:

1. +170 Kcal mol^-1
2. + 526 Kcal mol^-1
3. −170 Kcal mol^-1
4. − 526 Kcal mol^-1Deselect Answer

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74. Which of the following molecules contain bond angles of 180° in their gaseous states?
(Atomic numbers: H = 1; Be = 4; C = 6; Cl = 17)
A. BeCl₂ B. C₂ H₂ C. CCl₄
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. A only
4. B and C only

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75. The product in the given reaction is:

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76. Match the coordination number and type of hybridization with the distribution of hybrid orbitals in space based on Valence bond theory.

(a) (b)        (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (iii) (iv)       (i)         (ii)
3. (iv) (i)         (ii)        (iii)
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

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77. Which option shows the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCI?

1. I < II < III
2. II < I < III
3. II < III < II
4. III < II < I

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1

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None

78. A solution of Ni(NO₃)₂ is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of nickel (Ni) is deposited at the cathode?
(Given Molar Mass of Ni=58.7g)

1. 1.82 g
2. 2.95 g
3. 7.01 g
4. 5.16 g

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1

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None

79. The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde from acetophenone is:

1. NaHSO₃
2. C₆ H₅NHNH₂
3. NH₂ OH
4. NaOH and I₂

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1

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3

4

None

80. In the given reaction,

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81. The correct order for the rate of α , β-dehydrohalogenation for the following compounds is:

1. (i) < (ii) < (iii)
2. (ii) < (i) < (iii)
3. iii) < (ii) < (i)
4. (ii) < (iii) < (i)

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82. In the given reaction,

[X] will be:

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None

83. The cell that will measure the standard electrode potential of a copper electrode is

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84. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with their structure in Column-II and assign the correct code:

Code:
(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
1. (iii) (iv) (i)      (ii)
2. (i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)
3. (ii)     (m)    (iv)     (i)
4. (ii)     (iii)    (i)       (iv)

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85. Which of the following actinoids have one electron in 6d orbital?

1. Cf (Atomic number: 98)
2. Np (Atomic number: 93)
3. Pu (Atomic number: 94)
4. Am (Atomic number: 95)

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1

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3

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86. What is the oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl₂ (bleaching powder)?

1. Zero, because it contains Cl₂
2.−1, because it contains Cl^–3.+1, because it contains CIO^–4.+1 and-1 because it contains CIO^– and Cl^–

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87. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R=8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1
1. 269 kJ mol^-1
2. 34.7 kJ mol^-1
3. 15.1 kJ mol^-1
4. 342 kJ mol^-1

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88. Which compound is responsible for the green flame in the Borate ion test?

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89. Identify Z in the given sequence:

1. CH₃ CH₂ CONH₂2. CH₃ CN
3. CH₃COOH
4. (CH₃ CO)₂ O

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90. The plot of log k versus 1/T is linear with a slope of

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BIOLOGY

91. Kinetochore:

1. is not visible in dividing cells.
2. is also called the primary constriction
3. is a proteinaceous disc shaped structure on the sides of the centromeres.
4. holds two chromatids of a chromosome.

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92. Regarding feeding in frog:
I: Frog is a herbivore
II: Food is captured by the bilobed tongue.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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93. The primary difference between an artery and a vein is that:
A: Arteries carry blood away from the heart, and veins carry blood towards the heart.
B: Veins contain valves, whereas arteries do not.
C: Arteries carry only oxygenated blood, while veins carry only deoxygenated blood.

1. A and B are correct
2. B and C are correct
3. A and C are correct
4. A, B and C are correct

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None

94. The major lipids in the cell membrane are phospholipids. How are these phospholipids arranged within the membrane?

1. With hydrophobic tails towards the outer sides
2. With polar heads towards the inner part
3. With polar heads towards the outer sides and hydrophobic tails towards the inner part
4. In a random manner

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None

95. Identify the incorrect comparison between monocots and dicots in general:

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96. The current mass extinction is characterized by:

1. The natural extinction of species as a result of environmental changes over millions of years.
2. The rapid loss of species in a relatively short period, primarily due to human activities.
3. A decrease in biodiversity due to the natural evolution of species.
4. The migration of species from their native habitats to new areas, leading to a decrease in local biodiversity.

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97. In a human cell cycle lasting 24 hours, approximately how much time does the interphase last?

1. 1 hour
2. 5% of the cycle
3. 95% of the cycle
4. 90 minutes

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98. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of aleurone layer in plant species that have 8 chromosomes in their synergids?

1. 8
2. 16
3. 24
4. 32

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99. Identify the correct statements:
I: Gametes are flagellated and similar in size in Ulothrix
II: Gametes are non-flagellated and similar in size in Spirogyra III: Gametes are dissimilar in size in Eudorina

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

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100. The reaction centres in PSI and PSII in higher plants are respectively called as:

1.P680 and P700
2.P700 and P680
3. P870 and P700
4. P680 and P870

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101. Identify the correct statement regarding the atrioventricular (AV) valves:

1. A bicuspid valve is present between the right atrium and right ventricle.
2. A bicuspid valve is present between the right atrium and right ventricle.
3. Bicuspid valve is also called as the mitral valve.
4. AV valves normally prevent the backflow of blood from the atria to the ventricles.

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102. Given below is the graph showing the effect of substrate concentration on enzyme activity. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, when the concentration of the substrate is progressively increased:

1. The K_m value increases but the reaction will not achieve V_max
2. The K_m value increases but the reaction can ultimately achieve V_max
3. The K_mvalue decreases but the reaction will not achieve V_max
4. The K_m value decreases but the reaction can ultimately achieve V_max

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103. Adult human haemoglobin consists of:
I: 4 subunits.
II: 4 types of subunits.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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104. Consider the given statements:
I: The pituitary gland is divided into anterior and posterior lobes.
II: The anterior pituitary secretes growth hormone (GH).
III: The posterior pituitary is the source of ADH and oxytocin, stored and released from hypothalamus.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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None

105. Which statement correctly distinguishes hnRNA from mRNA in eukaryotes?

1. hnRNA is single-stranded, while mRNA is double-stranded.
2. hnRNA is synthesized in the cytoplasm, while mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus.
3. hnRNA directly binds to ribosomes for translation, while mRNA does not.
4. hnRNA contains introns and exons, whereas mRNA has only exons after processing.

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106. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

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107. What compound is widely used as a source of ethylene in agriculture?

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Ethephon
4. Cytokinin

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1

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None

108. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase enzyme.
Reason (R): Malonate has a structure similar to fumarate, the product of succinate oxidation, and thus binds to the active site of succinic dehydrogenase.
Choose the correct option:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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109. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Bryophytes usually occur in damp. humid and shaded localities and are not truly ‘successful’ on land.
Statement II: They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
3. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

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110. In a population of certain plants in a given area, the frequency of the allele for red flowers was 0.8. [Red color is the dominant trait and white color is the recessive trait and there are only two alleles for flower color]. What will be the frequency of the white allele in this population?

1. 0.8
2. 0.32
3. 0.16
4. 0.2

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111. How many of the given statements regarding IUDs are correct?
I: Lippes loop is non medicated IUD.
II: IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
III: The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
IV: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
V: It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

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112. What is the role of oxygen in aerobic respiration?

1. It helps make ATP directly.
2. It starts the electron transport chain by giving electrons.
3. It turns NADH into NAD+ in the mitochondria.
4. It accepts electrons and hydrogen to form water.

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113. Vital capacity of lung is

1. IRV + ERV + TV
2. IRV + ERV
3. IRV + ERV+TV+RV
4. IRV + ERV+TV-RV

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114. The mean annual precipitation is the most variable in:

1. Tropical forest
2. Desert
3. Grassland
4. Arctic tundra

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3

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None

115. Renal calculi are:

1. Masses of crystallized salts, like oxalates, formed within the kidney.
2. A condition in which glucose is present in urine.
3. An inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys.
4. A condition characterized by high blood urea levels.

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116. Match blood cells given in Column I with their most important function in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes: A B C D
1. P Q R S
2. Q P S R
3. R S P Q
4. S R Q P

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117. The source of complementary RNA for RNAi in a eukaryotic cell could be:
I: An infection by viruses having RNA genomes
II: Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate
III: Integration of phage DNA into the main chromosomal DNA of a eukaryotic cell

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

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118. Identify the incorrect statement.

1. Tendon and ligaments are dense regular connective tissues.
2. Macrophages and mast cells are found in areolar tissue.
3. Both cardiac muscles and smooth muscles are unstriated and involuntary.
4. Ciliated epithelium lines the fallopian tubes.

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119. The hormone responsible for maintaining the body’s circadian rhythms and sleepwake cycles is secreted by the:

1. Pituitary gland
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pineal gland
4. Adrenal gland

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120. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:

(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. (IV) (III) (I) (II)
2. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
3. (III) (I) (IV) (II)
4. (III) (IV) (II) (I)

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121. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The interaction, in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefitted, is known as commensalism.
Reason (R): Egrets always forage close to where the cattles are grazing, otherwise it is difficult for the egrets to find the insect and catch.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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122. Which of the following statements about Saheli, the oral contraceptive pill, is true?

1. It is a once-a-week pill containing high doses of estrogen.
2. It is a daily pill that works by suppressing ovulation through the administration of progesterone only.
3. It is a non-steroidal pill, taken once a week, known for its fewer side and high contraceptive value.
4. It functions primarily by altering the cervical mucus, making it impermeable to sperm.

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123. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options: (A)    (B)     (C)     (D)
1. III II       IV      I
2. III I        IV      II
3. II III      I        IV
4. IV III      II I

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124. HIV is a:

1. retrovirus which has an envelope enclosing the DNA genome
2. retrovirus which has an envelope enclosing the RNA genome
3. retrovirus which lacks an envelope
4. reovirus which lacks an envelope

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125. Consider the given statements:
I: ATP synthase is complex V of the mitochondrial ETS.
II: F0component of ATP synthase forms the channel through which protons cross the inner membrane.
III: For the production of ATP, the passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of the F1 component of ATP synthase.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II and III are correct
3. I, II and III are correct
4. I. II and III are incorrect

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126. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release:

1. the secondary oocyte arrested at Meiosis I from the ovary into the abdominal cavity.
2. the primary oocyte arrested at Meiosis I from the ovary into the uterine cavity.
3. the secondary oocyte arrested at Meiosis II from the ovary into the abdominal cavity.
4. the primary oocyte arrested at Meiosis II from the ovary into the uterine cavity.

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127. Consider the two statements regarding the structure of nephron in human kidneys:
Statement I: Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule, is called the malpighian body or renal corpuscle.
Statement II: The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

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128. Earlier classification systems included bacteria, blue green algae and fungi under ‘plants’. The problem with this inclusion was:
I: Bacteria and blue green algae have prokaryotic cell organization unlike other members included in “plants”.
II: Fungi and many bacteria are heterotrophic unlike autotrophic members included in ‘plants”.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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129. Regarding the male accessory sex ducts:

1. About 200 seminiferous tubules are present in testis lobule
2. Epididymis is located along the anterior surface of each testis
3. Vas deferens ascends to the abdomen and loops over the bladder
4. Ducts of seminal vesicles open at the urethral meatus

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130. Assertion (A): Symptoms of amoebic dysentery include stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
Reason (R): Enatamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large intestine of human.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

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131. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The sinoatrial (SA) node region of the right atrium is the normal pacemaker of the heart.
Reason (R): The human heart is myogenic in nature.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

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1

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None

132. The correct differences between the members of ascomycetes and basidiomycetes will include:

1. None
2. Only I and II
3. I, II and III
4. Only III

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133. How would the diffusing capacities of carbon dioxide and oxygen across the respiratory membrane compare?

1. The diffusing capacity of oxygen is 20 to 25 times higher than the diffusing capacity of carbon dioxide.
2. The diffusing capacity of carbon dioxide is 20 to 25 times higher than the diffusing capacity of oxygen.
3. The diffusing capacity of oxygen is 200 to 250 times higher than the diffusing capacity of carbon dioxide.
4. The diffusing capacity of carbon dioxide is 200 to 250 times higher than the diffusing capacity of oxygen.

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134. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

1. Pre-synaptic membrane
2. Tips of axons
3. Post-synaptic membrane
4. Membrane of synaptic vesicles

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135. Most common initial diagnostic test used to detect HIV infection is:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Western Blotting
3. Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA)
4. Immunofluorescence

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136. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom:

1. (A)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)

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137. Which of the following explains why veins have valves?

1. To reduce the pressure in venous blood.
2. To maintain the oxygen concentration in venous blood.
3. To regulate the blood entering capillaries.
4. To prevent backflow of blood due to low pressure

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138. Baculoviruses are used in biocontrol because they:

1. Enhance plant growth by fixing nitrogen.
2. Act as a natural pesticide, infecting and killing specific insect pests.
3. Increase soil fertility by decomposing organic waste.
4. Produce antibiotics that kill harmful bacteria in the soil.

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139. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The presence of zona pellucida is crucial for fertilization.
Reason (R): Zona pellucida contains specific receptors that facilitate sperm binding. essential for triggering the acrosomal reaction.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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140. While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction?

1. Competition
2. Predation.
3. Amensalism
4. Commensalism

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None

141. The RNA polymerase I does not transcribe:

1. 28S rRNA
2. 18S rRNA
3. 5.8S rRNA
4. 5S rRNA

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None

142. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are:

1. Homologous structures, represent divergent evolution
2. Analogous structures, represent convergent evolution
3. Phylogenetic structures, represent divergent evolution
4. Homologous structures, represent convergent evolution

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143. The diffusion membrane in the alveoli is composed of

1. Thin squamous epithelium, endothelium, and basement membrane
2. Columnar epithelium and connective tissue
3. Smooth muscle cells and endothelial cells
4. Alveolar macrophages and capillary walls

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144. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Mendel’s law of segregation can also be called as law of purity of gametes.
Statement II: Gametes have two complete sets of chromosomes in plants.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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145. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

1. Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
2. Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal → Ureter → Cloaca
3. Testes →Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital duct →Cloaca
4. Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

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None

146. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination.
Reason (R): Majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers and pollen grains are likely to come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

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1

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None

147. In triglycerides, glycerol is linked to fatty acid with a/an

1. Ether bond
2. Ester bond
3.Amide bond
4. Glycosidic bond

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1

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148. Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

1. Large-scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
2. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
3. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by developed countries
4. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals

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149. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
Reason (R): Statins act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. Both (A) and (R) are False
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

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1

2

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150. Which of the following statements about respiration in frogs is true?

1. Frogs respire only through their skin and not through lungs.
2. Adult frogs use their lungs for respiration, but can also respire through their moist skin.
3. Frogs cannot respire through their skin; they rely solely on their lungs.
4. The respiration in frogs is identical to that in humans, relying entirely on pulmonary ventilation.

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1

2

3

4

None

151. The human forebrain consists of all the following except:

1. cerebrum
2. thalamus
3. hypothalamus
4. cerebellum

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1

2

3

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None

152. Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa):
I: It is also known as posterior pituitary.
II: stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin.

1. Both I and II are correct
2. Both I and II are incorrect
3. I is correct, II is incorrect
4. 1 is incorrect, II is correct

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1

2

3

4

None

153. The probability that recombination [crossing over] takes place between two genes located on the same chromosome is proportional to:

1. the distance of genes from the centromere
2. the degree of contribution to the phenotype
3. the distance between the two genes
4. the distance of genes from the telomere

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1

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None

154. At lungs, the factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin include all of the following except:

1. high pO₂
2. low pCO₂
3. lesser H⁺ concentration
4. higher temperature

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1

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155. Cannabinoids:
I: are derived from Cannabis sativa
II: are CNS stimulant and strong pain killers.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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1

2

3

4

None

156. Although all types of ecological pyramids are generally upright, an inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in:

1. Forest ecosystem
2. Marine ecosystem
3. Grassland ecosystem
4. Tundra ecosystem

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1

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157. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. А-ІІ, В-III, С-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-1, D-II

Deselect Answer

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None

158. Select the correct statement regarding the mutation theory of evolution:

1. This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace.
2. Variations are small directional changes.
3. Single-step large mutation is a cause of speciation.
4. Large differences due to mutations arise gradually in a population

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159. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Variations on which natural selection acts, arise as a result of random mutations.
Reason (R): A new variation may, or may not, be adaptive.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains(A).
3. (A) is False and (R) is also False.
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

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None

160. Identify the correct statements regarding mitochondria:
a. Mitochondria are easily visible under the microscope without any staining.
b. The number of mitochondria per cell is always fixed irrespective of the physiological activity of the cells.
c. Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.
d. Mitochondria divide by fission.

1. a and b
2. c and d
3. a and c
4. b and d

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161. Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorption of the maximum amount of water from the filtrate?

1. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
2. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
3. Loop of Henle
4. Collecting duct

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None

162. Amniocentesis can be used to test for the presence of certain genetic disorders including all the following except:

1. Down’s syndrome
2. Haemoplilia
3. Pemicious anaemia
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome

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163. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Mycorrhizae are a type of symbiotic relationship between fungal hyphae and enhancing nutrient plant roots, absorption for the plant.
Reason (R): The fungal hyphae increase the surface area of the plant roots, allowing them to absorb more water and minerals from the soil.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explaination of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explaination of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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1

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None

164. Identify the correct statements:
I: Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood.
II: Globulins, primarily, are involved in the defense mechanisms of the body.
III: The albumins help in osmotic balance.

1. Only I
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

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1

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None

165. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell.
Reason (R): ATP is a ribonucleoside triphosphate.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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None

166. Inulin is a polymer of:

1. Fructose
2. Galactose
3. Amino Acids
4. Glucose

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167. The medulla oblongata contains centres for control of all the following except:

1. respiration
2. cardiovascular reflexes
3. gastric secretions
4. thermoregulation

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1

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3

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None

168. In a juxtamedullary nephron, which part dips deep into the renal medulla?

1. Malpighian corpuscle
2. PCT
3. DCT
4. Loop of Henle

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1

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None

169. If plants convert about 1% of the sunlight they receive into chemical energy, the total energy originally present in the incident sunlight that is finally embodied in a tertiary consumer is about:

1. 0.1%
2. 0.01%
3. 0.001%
4. 0.0001%

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1

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None

170. The products of light reaction in photosynthesis are:

1. ATP, NADPH and O₂
2. ATP, NADPH, O₂and H₂O
3. ATP, NADPH and H₂O
4. ATP, NADPH and CO₂

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None

171. Which of the following statements about the structure of a dorsiventral leaf is correct?

1. The adaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the abaxial epidermis.
2. The mesophyll layer is made up of sclerenchyma and carries out photosynthesis.
3. The spongy parenchyma cells are elongated and arranged vertically and parallel to each other.
4. The vascular bundles in the veins and midrib are surrounded by a layer of thick-walled bundle sheath cells

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None

172. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Lactobacillus bacteria improve the nutritional quality of curd by increasing its vitamin B12 content.
Reason (R): Lactic acid produced by Lactobacillus bacteria inhibits the growth of disease-causing microbes in the stomach.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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173. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:

1. Downstream processing
2. Bioprocessing
3. Post-product processing
4. Upstream processing

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None

174. RNA interference involves silencing of a specific mRNA by a complementary:

1. ssRNA
2. dsRNA
3. ssDNA
4. dsDNA

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175. Regarding the diplotene stage of prophase I:
(i) It begins with the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
(ii) Homologous chromosomes tend to separate except at the sites of crossing over.
(iii)The recombination nodules become more prominent during diplotene.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
3. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

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None

176. What is spermiogenesis?

1. The process of sperm release from the seminiferous tubules.
2. The transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa.
3. The division of a spermatocyte into spermatids.
4. The production of spermatozoa from stem cells

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177. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

1. Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
2. Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
4. Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics

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178. Consider he two statements:
Statement I: The conventional farming practices often use chemical methods which kill both useful and harmful life forms indiscriminately.
Statement II: The organic farmer works to create a system where the insects that are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable levels.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement 1 is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

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179. The cultivation of flowers or flowering plants, especially for ornamental purposes is called as:

1. ornamental horticulture
2. floriculture
3. floristry
4. plant tissue culture

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180. In Chlorophyceae:
I. Vegetative reproduction is not seen.
II. Asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores.
III. Sexual reproduction is always oogamous.

1. Only I and III are correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Only I and II are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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←NEET REVISION V TEST (07.02.2026)

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