WEEKLY Test SMATEE – Zawlbuk Zirna Run

Class Test SMATEE

Welcome to your SMATEE FULL TEST IV (22.03.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator.

PHYSICS

1. Those units, which can neither be derived from one another, nor can they be further resolved into any other units are called

a) derived units
b) fundamental units
c) physical units
d) elementary units

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2. Steradian is an example of

a) fundamental units
b) derived units
c) supplementary units
d) none

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3. The dimensional formula of Voltage is

a) [ML² T^-3 A^-1]
b) [ML³ T^-2 A^-1]
c) [ML² T^-1 A^-3]
d) [ML³ T^-2 A^-2]

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4. If a body changes its velocity in equal intervals of time, it is said to have

a) uniform motion
b) uniformly accelerated motion
c) uniform velocity
d) none

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5. The slope of the position-time graph of an object in uniform motion gives

a) displacement
b) distance
c) velocity
d) speed

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6. The distance covered by a body initially at rest, which accelerates to a speed of 144 kmh^-1, in 20s is

a) 800 m
b) 200 m
c) 400 m
d) 500 m

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8. For a non-uniform circular motion in a circle of radius r, the angular acceleration α is

a) a constant
b) 0
c) always varying
d) none

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9. A transverse wave consists of

a) only crests
b) only troughs
c) both crests and troughs
d) rarefactions and compressions

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10. De Broglie wavelength of 0.05 eV thermal neutron is

a) 1.3Å
b) 2Å
c) 5.4Å
d) 8Å

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11. The line that draws power supply to your house from street has

a) 220√2V average voltage.
b) 220 V average voltage.
c) Voltage and current out of phase by π/2.
d) Voltage and current possibly differing in phase ϕ such that |ϕ|<π/2.

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12. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow is concentric arcs.
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs.
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow.

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13. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because

a) it is monochromatic
b) it is not chromatic
c) it is not observed
d) it has small angular spread

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14. If a constant force acts on a particle, its acceleration will

a) remain constant
b) gradually decreases
c) gradually increases
d) be undefined

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15. The maximum value of photoelectric current is called

a) base current
b) saturation current
c) collector current
d) emitter current

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16. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.

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17. Energy is emitted when electron jumps from

a) Lower orbit to higher orbit
b) Higher orbit to lower orbit
c) Ground state to first excited state
d) Second excited state to infinity

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18. In a nuclear reaction which of the following is conserved?

a) Energy
b) Spin
c) Charge
d) All of these

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19. Balmer series lies in the

a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Near IR region
d) Far IR region

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20. How many spectral lines are observed for Hydrogen atom when electron jump from to in visible range?

a) 10
b) 3
c) 6
d) 15

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21. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in Brackett series will be

a) 2λ
b) 4λ
c) 9λ
d) 16λ

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22. The shortest wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen is equal to the shortest wavelength of Balmer series of a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number . The value of is

a) 4

b) 2

c) 3

d) 6

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23. Two protons attract each other when

a) The distance between them is 10^-2 m
b) The distance between them is 10^-9m
c) The distance between them is 10^-15 m
d) This will never happen

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24. Which of the following has high penetration power?

a) α-particles
b) β-rays
c) γ-rays
d) X-rays

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25. Which of the following pairs are isotones?

a) ₁H² and ₁H³
b) ₃H³ and ₁H³
c) ₆C¹² and ₇N¹³
a) ₁H¹ and ₂H⁴

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CHEMISTRY

26. Benzene reacts with CH₃Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to form :

a) Chlorobenzene
b) Benzyl chloride
c) Xylene
d) Toluene

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27. Which of the following has least boiling point?

a) n-Hexane
b) n-Pentane
c) 2-Methylbutane
d) 2,2-Dimethyl propane

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28. The principle involved in paper chromatography is

a) Adsorption
b) Partition
c) Solubility
d) Volatility

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29. The species having +I effect are

a) CH₃CH₂
b) -COOH
c) -NO₂
d) CN

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30. Which of the following compounds are aromatic ?

a) A,B
b) A,B,C
c) B,C
d) B only

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31. For a given alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides follow the order:

a) RI > RBr > RCI
b) RCI > RBr > RI
c) RI > RCI > RBr
d) RBr>RI > RCl.

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32. - Alkyl halides on treatment with alc. KOH give

a) alcohols
b) alkenes
c) alkanes
d) aldehydes

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33. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction -

a) C₆H₅Cl
b) CH₂=CHCI
c) CICH₂CH=CH₂
d) CH₃-CH=CHCI

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34. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

a) s > p > d > f
b) s < p < d < f
c) s > p f
d) s

d > f

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35. Which of the following set is non permissible?

a) n=4, l= 3, m=0
b) n=4, l= 2, m= 1
c) n= 4, l= 4, m=1
d) n=4, l=0, m= 0

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36. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Na atom is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

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37. How many electrons can fit in the orbitals for which n=3 and l =1 ?

a) 2
b) 6
c) 10
d) 14

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38. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbitals is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

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39. In case of d_x2-_y2orbital

a) Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
b) Probability of finding the electron along y -axis is zero
c) Probability of finding the electron along x- axis is zero
d) Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y- axis

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40. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are

a) 2, 0
b) 2, 1
c) 2, 2
d) 3, 1

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41. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

a) Alpha particle scaterring from Gold
b) Beta particle scaterring from Gold
c) Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
d) A and B

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42. How many electron pair are present in

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

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43. The H⁺ ion concentration of 0.05 M CH₃COOH solution is? (K_a = 1.25 x 10^-6)

a) 4 × 10^-6
b) 16 × 10^-3
c) 25 × 10^-5
d) 32 × 10^-4

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44. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?
(I) pKw increase with increase in temperature
(II) pKw decreases with increase in temperature
(III) pKw = 14 at all temperature
(IV) pKw = pH at all temperature

a) only (I)
b) (II) and (IV) only
c) I and IV only
d) (I), (II) and (IV)

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45. Calculate the pH of 10^-7 M NaOH

a) 7.3
b) 8.4
c) 10.2
d) 6.5

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46. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order

a) NaCl < NH₄Cl < NaCN < HCl
b) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH₄Cl
c) NaCN < NH₄Cl < NaCl < HCl
d) HCl < NH₄Cl <NaCl < NaCN

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47. A 50 mL solution of strong acid of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL solution of strong acid of pH = 2. The pH of the mixture will be nearly?

a) 2.46
b) 12.12
c) 1.26
d) 4.26

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48. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 × 10^-3 g/L at 298 K. The value of solubility product (K_sp) will be (given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g/mol)

a) 1.08 × 10^-10 mol²L^-2
b) 1.08 × 10^-12 mol²L^-2c) 1.08 × 10^-14 mol²L^-2
d) 1.08 × 10^-8 mol²L^-2

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49. Which of the following statement is false?

a) ∆G = 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
b) ∆S = 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
c) ∆H ≠ 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
d) A chemical reaction is in its most stable state at equilibrium

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50. A 0.25 M solution of ammonium chloride, NH₄Cl was found to have a pH of 2.75. What is K_b for ammonia, NH₃?

a) 10^-9.1b) 10^-8.2
c) 10^-6.1 d) 10^-5.2

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BIOLOGY

51. HGP is the sequencing of complete human

a) genome
b) proteins
c) RNA
d) enzymes.

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52. The full form of RFLP is

a) Restriction Fragment Long Polymerase
b) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
c) Required Fragments Length Polymorphism
d) Regular Fragment Length Polymerase.

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53. In C3-plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is

a) malic acid
b) oxaloacetic acid
c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde

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54. In C4-plants, Calvin cycle operates in

a) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast
b) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts
c) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
d) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts

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55. During translation, the role of tRNA is to:

a) Carry amino acids to the ribosome
b) Synthesize mRNA from DNA
c) Unwind the DNA double helix
d) Join Okazaki fragments

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56. In the lac operon, the repressor protein binds to:

a) Operator
b) Promoter
c) Structural genes
d) Regulator gene

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57. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the genetic code?

a) It is degenerate
b) It is unambiguous
c) It is universal
d) It is double-stranded

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58. In a DNA molecule, the percentage of adenine is 30%. What will be the percentage of guanine?

(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%

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59. What is the role of the promoter region in transcription?

a) It terminates the transcription process
b) It serves as the binding site for RNA polymerase
c) It codes for the synthesis of tRNA
d) It joins Okazaki fragments

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60. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what conclusion was drawn from the presence of radioactive phosphorus in the bacterial pellet?

a) Proteins are the genetic material

b) DNA is the genetic material

c) RNA is the genetic material

d) Carbohydrates are essential for infection

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61. Which of the following is NOT required for the elongation phase of translation?

(a) Ribosomes
(b) tRNA
(c) Mrna
(d) DNA polymerase

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62. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, after one round of replication in ¹⁴N medium, the DNA was found to have:

a) All heavy strands (¹⁵N)
b) All light strands (¹⁴N)
c) Hybrid strands (¹⁵N-¹⁴N)
d) A mix of heavy and light strands

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63. The process of transcription in eukaryotes differs from prokaryotes because:

a) It occurs in the cytoplasm
b) It involves splicing of mRNA
c) It does not require RNA polymerase
d) It produces DNA as the final product

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64. In mitosis, there are two phases that are virtually the reverse of each other and these are

(a) prophase and metaphase
(b) prophase and telophase
(c) anaphase and telophase
(d) metaphase and telophase.

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65. In which phase of mitosis, chromosome physically separates into chromatids which repel each other?

(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Prophase

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66. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(a) 32
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 4

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67. The significance of mitotic division is

(a) it maintains the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(b) it replaces the old or worn-out cells
(c) daughter cells and parent cells have the same number of chromosomes (2n)
(d) all of these.

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68. "G₀" state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes

(a) check point before entering the next phase
(b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay
(c) death of a cell
(d) exit of cells from cell cycle.

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69. Which is the longest phase of cell cycle?

(a) Anaphase-II
(b) Prophase-I
(c) Interphase
(d) Both prophase-I and II

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70. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?

(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Prophase

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71. During mitosis chromosome number is

(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) constant
(d) none of these

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72. In mitosis, centromere divides at

(a) prophase
(b) metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) telophase.

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73. Spindle fibre unite with which structure of chromosomes?

(a) Chromocentre
(b) Chromomere
(c) Centriole
(d) Kinetochore

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74. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the

(a) metaphase plate
(b) metatorial plate
(c) equatorial phase
(d) anaphase plate

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75. In an average 24 hour duration of cell cycle of human cell, mitosis consumes a period of average hour/hours.

(a) two
(b) three
(c) twelve
(d) one

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76. Morgan conducted his experiment on

a) Pisum sativum
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Musca domestica
d) Triticum aestivum

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77. What are the possible genotypes of person with blood group A?

(a) IAIA only
(b) IAIB
(c) IAi , IAIA
(d) ii

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78. What will be the phenotype of F1 generation if red flower and white flower were crossed and they show incomplete dominance?

(a) Red
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Roan

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79. Human skin colour is an example of

(a) Polygene
(b) Pleiotropic gene
(c) Multiple alleles
(d) Codominance

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80. Pleiotropic effect is found in

(a) Human height
(b) Phenylketonuria
(c) Night blindness
(d) Haemophilia

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81. Mendel’s second law is also known as

a) Law of dominance
b) Law of segregation
c) Law of independent assortment
d) None of above

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82. Chromosomal theory of inheritance is proposed by

a) Sutton and Flemming
b) Walter Flemming
c) Sutton and Boveri
d) T.H Morgan

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83. Brood parasitism is observed in

(a) Cuckoo
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Butterfly
(d) Starfish

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84. The relation between algae and fungi in lichen is

(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Competition
(d) Mutualism

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85. Type of interaction that occur in predation is

(a)+,+
(b) +,-
(c) -,-
(d) +,0

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86. The principle of competitive exclusion was given by

(a) Darwin
(b) MacArthur
(c) Connell
(d) Gause

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87. In some shallow South American lake, flamingoes and fishes show which type of interaction

(a) Competition
(b) Mutualism
(c) Predation
(d) Mutualism

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88. Select the correct statement.

a) Predators are conduit for energy flow
b) Type of interaction in predation is positive
c) Predators do not play a role in prey population
d) All of above

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89. Male contains half the number of chromosomes present in female in

(a) Human beings
(b) Honey bee
(c) Pigeon
(d) Moth

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90. The number of chromosomes in a person suffering from Down’s Syndrome is

(a) 46
(c) 47
(b) 45
(d) 23

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91. If a colour blind man marries a woman withmhomozygous normal vision, the chances of their son being color blind is

(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%

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92. In honey bee, an unfertilized egg develops as a male by means of

a) Fertilization
b) Parthenogenesis
c) Sexual reproduction
d) None of these

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93. Which of the following represents monosomy

(a) 2n – 1
(b) 2n + 1
(c) n – 1
(d) n + 1

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94. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZZ – WW
(b) XX – XY
(c) XX – XO
(d) ZW – ZZ

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95. A person with karyotype of XXY is affected by

a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Down’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Thalassemia

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96. Which of the following diseases is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition

a) Haemophilia
b) Colour blindness
c) Myotonic dystrophy
d) Sickle-cell anaemia

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97. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of which of the following disorder

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Cystic fibrosis

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98. Male is haploid in

a) Drosophila
b) Cockroach
c) Butterfly
d) Honey bee

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99. Sex determination in grasshoppers, drosophila and human is similar because

a) Females are heterozygous
b) Males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes
c) All males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species
d) The ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms

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100. Flat hand with a characteristic palm crease is observed in

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Thalassemia
c) Down’s syndrome
d) All of these

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