1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

1. Choose the correct option from the following options given below:

(a) In the ground state of Rutherford’s model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in Thomson’s model electrons always experience a net-force.
(b) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford's model but has a highly non-uniform mass distribution in Thomson's model
(c) A classical atom based on Rutherford's model is doomed to collapse.
(d) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford's model but not in Thomson’s model.

2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed in water of refractive index , then the fringe with becomes (in mm):

(a) 16
(b) 9
(c) 48
(d) 12

3. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-Ill, B-ll, C-l, D-l V
(b) A-lll, B-IV,C-II, 1X1
(c) A-IV,B-l,C-lll,D-ll
(d) A-ll, B-lll, C-l, D-IV

4. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015 u. The binding energy of helium nucleus is:

(a) 14.2MeV
(b) 56.8MeV
(c) 28.4MeV
(d) 7.1 MeV

5. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in radians):

a) π/6

b) π/3

c) π/8

d) π/4

6. In the given circuit, rms value of current (I_rms) through the resistor R is:

(a) 2A
(b) 1/2 A
(c) 20A
(d) 2√2 A

7. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:

(a) R=0.001r
(b) R= 1000r
(c) R = 2r
(d) R = r 

8. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is:

(a) 1:1
(b) 3:1
(c) √3:1      
(d) 9:1

9. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32 limes its initial value. The final pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is:

(a) 32
(b) 326
(c) 128
(d) 1/32

10. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally at the mid-point of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45° with the vertical. Then Fequals: (Take g = 10 ms^-2 and the rope to be massless)

(a) 100 N
(b) 90 N
(c) 70 N
(d) 75 N

11. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the surface of the earth. When both ‘d* and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) d=3h/2                   
(b) d= h/2
(c) d=h   
(d) d=2h

12. A particle of mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant 800 N m^-1 executes simple harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of the oscillator is 4 J, the maximum acceleration (in ms^-2) of the particle is

(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 20

13. The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + bt², where a = 15 cm and b=3 cm/s^-2. Its instant velocity at time 3 sec will be

(a) 36cm/sec
(b) 9cm/sec
(c) 4.5cm/sec
(d) 18cm/sec π

14. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because

(a) induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these

15. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. If the maximum compression of the spring is 0.15 m, the value of mass m is

(a) 0.5kg
(b) 0.15kg
(c) 0.12kg
(d) 1.5kg

16. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen gas is

(a) PV= RT
(b) PV=2RT
(c) PV = 1/2RT               
(d) PV = 4RT

17. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope

(a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(b) depends on the nature of the metal used
(c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

18. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of a lower of height 45 m. Then its kinetic energy after 3 sec is [take g= 10m/s²]

(a) 557J
(b) 1350J
(c) 1050J
(d) 1296J

19. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into energy. The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be

(a) 9x10¹⁹J
(b) 9x10¹⁷J
(c) 9x10¹⁶J
(d) 9x10¹³J

20. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times of the coefficient of superficial expansion (area), then value of x is

(a) 3
(b) 25
(c) 1.5
(d) 2

21. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction, with a velocity of 147 ms^-1. Then the lime after which inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is

a) 15 (√3-1) s
b) 15 (√3+1) s
c) 7.5 (√31-1) s
d) 7.5 (√31+1) s

22. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation

(a) PQ is horizontal
(b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal 
(d) any one will be horizontal

23. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius of 6.6 * IO-15 m. The potential on its surface will be (the charge on the proton = 1.6 x 10^-19 C)

(a) 1.1 x 10⁷V
(b) 21 x 10⁷V
(c) 3.1 x 10⁷V
(d) 0.15 x 10⁷V

25. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground stale inelastically. Energy of the colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector?

(a) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV
(b) 2 photon of energy 1.4 eV
(c) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of 1.4 eV

26. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency fin air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be

a) 3 f/2
b) 2 f
c) f
d) f/2

27. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is halved?

(a) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved
(b) Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled
(c) Inductive reactance will be halved and current 11 be doubled
(d) Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

28. The V-I characteristics shown in figure represents

(a) ohmic conductors
(b) non-ohmic conductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors

29. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C and then it is placed on a large block of ice at 0°C. If the specific heat capacity of copper is 400 J/kg°C and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5x10⁵ J/kg, the amount of ice that can melt is

(a) (7/8) kg
(b) (7/5) kg
(c) (8/7) kg
(d) (5/7) kg

30. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When she pulls her arms and legs in

(a) the angular velocity decreases
(b) the moment of inertia decreases
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases

31. A current of/ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle 0 at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is

32. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a monoatomic gas is

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 1

33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ε_° and permeability μ_° is given by

34. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10is

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.8 
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.2 

35. Surface tension of a solution is 30 x 10^-2 N / m . The radius of the soap bubble is 5 cm. The surface energy of soap bubble is

36. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats/s. What is the frequency of fork A?

(a) 335 Hz
(b) 338 Hz
(c) 345 Hz
(d) 342 Hz

37. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy stale to 2nd energy stale. The energy released in this process, will be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV) Where R = Rydberg constant, c = Speed of light in vacuum, h = Planck’s constant

(a) 10.5eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c) 3.4eV
(d) 40.8eV

38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

39. An a-particle, a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the following is correct in case of their De-Broglie wavelength

40. If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the Young’s modules of the material of the wire will:

(a) Remains same           
(b) Become 8 times its initial value
(c) Become I/4th of its initial value
(d) Become 4 times its initial value

41. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular path of radius 0.8 m with an angular velocity 44 rad/sec. If radius of path becomes 1 m then value of angular velocity will be

(a) 35.28 rad/sec
(b) 14.08 rad/sec
(c) 28.16 rad/sec
(d) 24.08 rad/sec

42. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of waler in 5 minutes. A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in

(a) 5 minutes
(b) 8 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 20 minutes

43. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance

(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
(d) increases K^-1 times

44. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new momentum will be

(a) same as initial value
(b) twice the initial value
(c) thrice the initial value
(d) four times the initial value

45. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of L i2 are

(a) [ML²T^-2]
(b) [MLT^-2]
(c) [M²L²T^-2]
(d) Not expressible in M,L,T

CHEMISTRY

46. After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of H₂, electron density is increased between the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is , which shows destructive interference of the combining electron waves.

(a) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(c) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
(d) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion

48. For silver, Cp(JK-1mol-1) =23+0.01T. lf the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of will be close to:

(a) 62 kJ
(b) 16 kJ
(c) 21 kJ
(d) 13

49. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3- methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63 °C while the other boils at 60 °C. What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be distilled out first?

(a) fractional distillation, isohexane
(b) simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
(c) simple distillation, isohexane
(d) fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane

52. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Sn in +2 oxidation state act as a good reducing agent while Pb in +4 oxidation state act as a good oxidising agent.

Reason (R): Due to inert pair effect Pb in +2 oxidation state is stable.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

53. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC₂O₄, Fe₂ (C₂O₄ )₃, FeSO₄ and Fe₂(SO₄ )₃ in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO₄ required is:

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 13

54. ∆_f G° 500 K for substance 'S' in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol^-1 and + 103 kcal mol^-1 respectively. Vapour pressure of liquid 'S' at 500K is approximately equal t0: (R=2 cal K^-1 mol^-1 ) .

(a) 100 atm
(b) l atm
(c) 10 atm
(d) 0.1 atm

55. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as "Assertion A” and the other is labelled as "Reason R".
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of rc-donor character in addition to the cr-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(a) A is correct but R is not correct
(b) A is not correct but R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is .NOT the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

56. According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is

57 .If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:

58. In Dumas method for the estimation of N„ the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:

(a) Ni
(b) Copper gauze
(c) Pd
(d) Copper oxide

59. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Hofmann degradation reaction, the migration of only an alkyl group takes place from carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom.
Statement II : The group is migrated in Hofmann degradation reaction to electron deficient atom. In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

60. In a compound C, 11 and N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is 108. Molecular formula of compound is

61. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation is:

(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) V
(d) Zn

67. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of:

(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Calcium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate

82. Read the following statements regarding Fajan's rule. The rate constant for a reaction is expressed as and select the correct option.

(l) The reduced the size of the cation and the larger the size of the anion, the larger the covalent character of an ionic bond.

(Il) The larger the charge on the cation, the larger the covalent character of the ionic bond.

Options:

(a) Only (1) is incorrect
(b) (1) and (Il) are correc
(c) (1) and (Il) are incorrect
(d) (l) is correct and (Il) is incorrect

88. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Phenolphthalein is a pH dependent indicator, remains colourless in acidic solution and gives pink colour in basic medium

Reason R: Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. It doesn't dissociate in basie medium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

89. At a particular temperature, the vapour pressures of two liquids A and B are respectively 120 and 180 mm of mercury. I f 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B are mixed to form an ideal solution, the vapour pressure of the solution at the same temperature will be (in mm of mercury)

(a) 156
(b) 145
(c) 150
(d) 108

98. In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the correct match from the option given below:

101. Assertion (A): Chlorella could be utilised to keep the air pure in space vehicles.

      Reason (R): The space travellers teed on Chlorella soup. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)

102. Carbon dioxide labelled with ¹⁴C has been used to identify the intermediate compounds in the Calvin cycle, the light independent stage in photosynthesis. Which compound would be the first to contain the ¹⁴C?

(a) glucose
(b) starch
(c) GP(PGA)
(d) triose phosphate

103. The dihybrid ratio in F₂ - generation is

(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 2:1:2:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

104. Reverse transcriptase is

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

105. Identify the correct statements for ATP synthase:
(i) This enzyme consists of two parts: hydrophobic membrane bound portion called F₀ & a portion that sticks out into stroma called F₁
(ii) F₀ appears to form a channel across the membrane through which proton can pass.
(iii) The conformational change in the Fj portion of the complex synthesizes ATP.
(iv) The proton motive force that drives the synthesis of ATP is associated with this enzyme.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All of these

106. Match the following and choose the correct option:

107. What is the end product of glycolysis of a glucose molecule?

(a) Fructose 1,6- diphosphate  
(b) Pyruvate and ATP
(c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde     
(d) Lactic acid and ATP

108 In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R. Q. is zero because

(a) CO₂ is released without any absorption of O₂
(b) O₂ is absorbed but CO₂ is not released
(c) There is often compensation point in these plants due to thick phylloclades
(d) None of these

109. Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor which passes them to an electron transport system consisting of

(a) phytochromes
(b) cytochromes
(c) Z-scheme
(d) redox potential scale

110. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

(a) endangered species found in the region.
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(c) genetic diversity presents in the dominant species of the region.
(d) species endemic to the region.

111. Which organelle is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion

112. Coconut milk (coconut waler) is widely used in tissue culture because it contains

(a) auxins
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellins

113. The Okazaki fragments in ON A chain growth

(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(b) proves semi-conservative nature of ON A replication
(c) polymerize in the 5' - to - 3* direction and explain 3' - to - 5' DNA replication
(d) result in transcription

114. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?

(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria

115. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

116. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?

(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO₂ concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

117. In down’s syndrome of a male chi Id, the sex complement is

(a) XO
(b) 45 XY
(c) 45 XX
(d) XXY

118. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over

119. Pick out the correct statements
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i),(iii) and (lv) are correct
(d) (i). (ii) and (iii) are correct

120. The first step of photosynthesis is

(a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO₂ to 5 carbon sugar
(d) ionisation of water

121. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

122. “Foolish seedling" disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) ABA
(b) 2,4-D
(c) 1AA
(d) GA

123. Which one of the following grow th regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?

(a) Abscissic acid
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA₃
(d) Indole acetic acid

124. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(a) China rose and citrus
(b) China rose
(c) Citrus 
(d) Pea

125. Statement I: Biooontrol refers to the useofbiokigical methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
     Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures with greatly reduced our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

126. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
        Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

127. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type A : 1 type B?

128. The given figures (A and B) show the modification of roots. Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow' in sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root.

129. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

130. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reducat ion reactions produce proton gradi ent in respiration
(b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of N ADH + FT gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

131. Statement I: The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of redox potential scale in electron transport chain
     Statement II: The electrons are used up as they pass through the electron transport chain. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

132. Conservation of biodiversity due to services like provision of pollinators and climate regulation is an example of

(a). Narrowly utilitarian
(b). Broadly utilitarian
(c). Ethical utilitarian
(d). None of these133.

133. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

134. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

135. Match the following and choose the correct option:

136. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection

137. A man having a genotype WwXxYxZz can produce a number of genetically different sperms and a women of genotype PpQQRrSS can generate B number of genetically different eggs. Determine the value of A and B.

(a) A=8, B=4
(b) A=16, B=4
(c) A=32, B=8
(d) A=4, B=8

138. Plasmid has been used as vector because to

(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene

139. Statement I: Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular organs.
        Statement II: About 80% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrec
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

140. Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection:

(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissues and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukemia.

(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope by the pathologist.

(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect physiological changes in living tissues.

(v) Early detection of cancer is essential as it allow the disease to be treated successfully.

Which of the following statement are incorrect?

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)

141. Assertion (A): STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse
        Reason (R): STDs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

142. Statement I: Increased permeability of Na⁺ ions due to the rise in stimulus is short lived.
        Statement II: The resting membrane potential of membrane at the site of excitation is restored by Na* and Ci~ ions.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

143. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

144. Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.

145. Match the items given in column-l with those in column-ll and select the correct option given below.

146. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

(a) 'Flavr Savr' tomato
(b) Canola
(c) Golden rice
(d) Bt-Brinjal

147. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?

(a) Compound eyes
(b) Poison gland
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Metamorphosis

148. Mark the unmatched one

(a) Neutrophils – Phagocytic
(b) Basophils - Secrete histamine
(c) Acidophils - Secrete heparin
(d) Lymphocytes - Secrete antibodies

149. If for some reason, the vasa efterentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus

150. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Nephron
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens

151. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the synovial joint causes:

(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Paralysis

152. Statement I: Malarial parasite requires two hosts humans and mosquitoes to complete its life cycle.
       Statement II: Haemozoin is a toxic substance produced by the rupturing of liver cells during malarial infection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct

153. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by

(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared.
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared.

154. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

(a) biotechnology
(b) biomonitoring
(c) bioinformatics
(d) biosystematics

155. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

156. Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
       Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

157. Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(a) diaphragm
(b) ribs
(c) pleura
(d) lungs

158. Eustachian lube connects

(a) External ear with middle ear
(b) External ear with internal ear
(c) Middle ear with pharynx
(d) Internal pharynx

159. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

160. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) cAMP
(d) cGMP

161. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is:

(a) Escherischia coll
(b) Bacillus subtil is
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida

162. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

163. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.

164. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option.

165. Carcinoma refers to

(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon

166. Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
       Statement II: Cancer arising from epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

167. the number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 2 pairs

168. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(d ) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

169. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume

170. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

171. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

172. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

173. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

174. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.

(a) (i)and(ii)
(b) (ii)and(iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

175. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb - Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup - Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers - Initiation of the heart beat

176. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

177. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

178. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.

179. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

180. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.