NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (26.07.2025)

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Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (26.07.2025)

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following is not an aldose?

1) Glucose
2) Ribose
3) Fructose
4) Galactose

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2. Which of the following best describes the tertiary structure of a protein?

1. Linear sequence of amino acids
2. Repeated folding patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets
3. Three-dimensional shape formed by interactions between side chains
4. Multiple polypeptide chains arranged in a single complexDeselect Answer

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3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cellulose?

1) Branched-chain polymer
2) Straight-chain polymer
3) Composed of α-glucose units
4) Soluble in water

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4. In the Benedict’s test, the formation of a red precipitate indicates the presence of:

1. Non-reducing sugars
2. Reducing sugars
3. Polysaccharides
4. LipidsDeselect Answer

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5. Which of the following is not a chemically modified sugar’?

1. Glucosamine
2. N-acetyl galactosamine
3. Galacturonic acid
4. Di hydroxy acetoneDeselect Answer

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6. Which of the following statements is false

1. In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes
2. Protein is a homopolymer
3. Non-essential amino acids are synthesized by animals
4. Dietary proteins are source of essential amino acidDeselect Answer

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7. Find out incorrect

1. a polysaccharide is obtained from the roots of Dahlia.
2. GLUT-4 protein enables glucose transport into
3. Ribose sugar is present in RNA and ATP
4. Sucrose is a dipeptide commonly known as AspartameDeselect Answer

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8. Which of the following is correct about amino acid?

1. It is a compound containing amino (-NH2) and acidic group (-COOR)
2. It is a substitute of cis methane
3. It is based on nature of R group they are of many
4. All of these

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9. In some places a protein molecule may be folded back on itself. This is called _______ structure and folds or coils and are held together in place by ,

1. secondary; H-bonds
2. secondary; peptide bond
3. tertiary; H-bonds
4. primary; peptide bond

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10. Quarternary structure is present in

1) haemoglobin
2) histone
3) globulin
4) elastin

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11. Mark the mismatched

1. Toxins – Ricin
2. Alkaloids – Codeine
3. Drugs- Vimblastine
4. Lectin- Curcumin

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12. Which of the following amino acids can stabilize protein structure by forming disulphide bonds?

1) Arginine
2) Lysine
3) Cysteine
4) Alanine

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13. Cellulose does not form blue colour with iodine because

1. It is a helical molecule
2. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules
3. It breaks down when iodine reacts to it
4. It is a disaccharide

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14. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin dependent?

1) GLUT I
2) GLUT II
3) GLUT III
4) GLUT IV

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15. Which of the following amino acids is essential for humans?

1) Alanine
2) Glutamic acid
3) Valine
4) Tyrosine

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16. Weight of protein is approximately

1) >12000 Da
2) < 6000 Da
3) < 12000 Da.
4) 600-3000 Da.

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17. In a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond, which is formed by the reaction of

1. -COOH group of one amino acid with -NH2 group of next amino acid
2. -NH₃ group of one amino acid with -COOH group of next amino acid.
3. -COOH groups of two amino acids
4. -NH2 groups of two amino

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18. Out of following elements, which is present in least quantity in human body?

1) Carbon
2) Oxygen
3) Silicon
4) Nitrogen

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19. Which of the following is/are alkaloids

1) Cellulose
2) Codeine
3) Morphine
4) Both (2) and (3)

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20. Which of the following is NOT a primary metabolite?

1) Amino acids
2) Sugars
3) Antibiotics
4) Nucleotides

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21. Which polysaccharides is the primary structural component of plant cell walls

1) Starch
2) Cellulose
3) Glycogen
4) Chitin

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22. Which substance is normally absent in protein

1) Carbon
2) Nitrogen
3) Sulphur
4) Phosphorus

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23. How much time will it take to fill half of the cup if a bacterial cell divides mitotically once in a minute and it takes one hour to fill the cup?

1) 30 minutes
2) 45 minutes
3) 20 minutes
4) 59 minutes

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24. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

1) leptotene
2) zygotene
3) pachytene
4) diakinesis

Deselect Answer

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25. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the G2/M checkpoint in the cell cycle?

1. Ensures proper attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers
2. Checks for DNA replication errors before mitosis
3. Determines if the cell should enter G0 phase
4. Monitors external growth signals before DNA replication

Deselect Answer

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26. Refer to the given stages A, B, C and D of meiosis I and select the incorrect statement regarding them.

1. The last stage of A is diakinesis which is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
2. In stage B, microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.
3. In stage C, homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
4. In stage D, separation of chromosomes takes place, cytokinesis follows this stage and this is called as dyad of cells.

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27. A defect in the Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) of a human cell leads to the failure of securin degradation. Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of this defect during mitosis?

1. The metaphase plate will fail to form.
2. Chromatids will not separate during anaphase.
3. The spindle fibers will not attach to kinetochores.
4. Sister chromatids will undergo recombination.

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28. During the late interphase stage of the cell cycle, a cell is observed to actively synthesize tubulin proteins while also increasing in volume. Which phase is the cell most likely in?

1. G₁-phase, as the cell prepares for DNA replication
2. S-phase, since DNA and protein synthesis occur simultaneously
3. G₂-phase, as the cell readies itself for mitotic division
4. M-phase, where spindle fiber formation and chromosome segregation take place

Deselect Answer

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29. Study the following process which occurs in the telophase of mitosis.
(i) Breakdown of spindle fibres.
(ii) Formation of the nuclear membrane.
Identify the stage in which the opposite of the above process occurs.

1) S phase
2) Prophase
3) Interphase
4) Metaphase

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30. Meiosis II performs

1. separation of sex chromosomes
2. synthesis of DNA and centromere
3. separation of homologous chromosomes
4. separation of chromatids.

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31. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

1. same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
2. half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
3. half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
4. same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

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32. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?

1. 63
2. 42
3. 21
4. 84

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33. Select the correct option: –

A B C D

(1)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)
(2)        (i)         (ii)        (v)        (iv)
(3)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)
(4)        (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (iv)

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34. A bacterial culture initially contains 2 × 10⁶ cells/mL and doubles every 30 minutes. What will be the cell concentration per mL after 2 hours?

1) 32 x 10⁶2) 16 x 10⁶3) 8 x 10⁶4) 64 x 10⁶

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35. Assertion (A): A somatic cell after S phase contains four times the DNA of a gamete.
Reason (R): DNA doubles during S phase and somatic cells are diploid.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Deselect Answer

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36. At which sub-stage of prophase-I are homologous chromosomes fully paired and synapsis completed?

1) Leptotene
2) Zygotene
3) Pachytene
4) Diplotene

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37. An egg cell has 20 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much amount of DNA will be, in this animal at the end of G₂ phase of mitosis?

1) 20 pg
2) 40 pg
3) 60 pg
4) 80 pg

Deselect Answer

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38. Number of chromatids at metaphase is

1. Two each in mitosis and meiosis
2. Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
3. Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
4. One in mitosis and two in meiosis

Deselect Answer

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39. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in

1) Telophase
2) Cytokinesis
3) Metaphase
4) Anaphase

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40. Assertion: Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Reason: Crossing over occurs in diplotene stage of prophase-I

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

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41. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/ stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

1) C-karyokinesis
2) D- G₁ phase
3) A- cytokinesis
4) B- Anaphase

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42. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes

1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
2. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Deselect Answer

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43. _________________is the best stage to observe the shape, size, and number of chromosomes

1) Prophase
2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase
4) Telophase

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44. An anther has 800 pollen grains. How many PMCs must have been there to produce them?

1) 1200
2) 200
3) 300
4) 150

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45. In which stage of meiosis II, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?

1. Prophase II and Metaphase II
2. Anaphase II and Telophase II
3. Prophase II and Telophase II
4. Metaphase II and Anaphase II

Deselect Answer

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ZOOLOGY

46. Select the wrong statement regarding phylum ctenophora

1. They are mostly marine
2. They show bioluminescence
3. They are hermaphrodite
4. They have eight external rows of ciliated comb platesDeselect Answer

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47. Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates

1. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
3. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
4. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correctDeselect Answer

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None

48. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Protonephridia
3. Green glands
4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer

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49. Match the following and select the correct option

1. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)Deselect Answer

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50. Body cavity not lined by mesoderm and directly connected to archenteron occurs in

1) Platyhelminthes
2)Annelida
3) Aschelminthes
4) Echinoderms

Deselect Answer

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51. Notochord arises from

1) Endoderm
2) Mesoderm
3) Ectoderm
4) None of these

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52. Which of the following group of animals have a unique property of possessing mammary glands, hair and pinnae?

1. Elephas, Corvus, Neophron
2. Chelone, Panthera, Vipera
3. Balaenoptera, Pterophus, Delphinus
4. Betta, Hyla, CanisDeselect Answer

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53. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of which phylum?

1. Porifera
2. Ctenophora
3. Echinodermata
4. ChordataDeselect Answer

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54. Consider the following features and select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.
A. Bilateral symmetry
B. Organ-system level of organization
C. Proper circulatory and respiratory system

1. Mollusca, Hemichordata, Echinodermata
2. Annelida, Aschelminthes, Chordata
3. Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Porifera
4. Arthropoda, Cnidaria, PlatyhelminthesDeselect Answer

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55. Hooks and suckers are the characteristic feature of which phylum?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2Deselect Answer

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56. The excretory structure of arthropods is

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Green glands
3. Protonephridia
4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer

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57. Match the following

1. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
2. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
3. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
4. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)Deselect Answer

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58. Read the following statements with respect to Cyclostomes and select the incorrect ones.
A. They lack scales and paired fins
B. They have circular mouth with jaws
C. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
D. They migrate to deep sea for spawning

1) A and D only
2) A and B only
3) B and C only
4) B and D only

Deselect Answer

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59. Pinctada are characterized by

1. Presence of notochord in early stage of life
2. Presence of operculum
3. Presence of visceral hump
4. BioluminescenceDeselect Answer

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60. Superclass Tetrapoda is further classified into how many classes

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

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61. Which of the following is a unique feature of mammals?

1. Four chambered heart
2. Presence of diaphragm
3. Homeothermy
4. Rib-cageDeselect Answer

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62. In which phylum the body can be divided into two identical left and right halves in only one plane?

1) Coelenterata
2) Ctenophora
3) Porifera
4) Annelida

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63. Which of the following cells in sponges help in trapping food?

1) Pinacocytes
2) Porocytes
3) Choanocytes
4) Ostia

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64. Female Ascaris can be differentiated from male by

1. Presence of female gonapophysis
2. Presence of setae
3. Shorter length
4. Longer lengthDeselect Answer

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65. Which of the following does not belong to phylum Echinodermata?

1. Sea lily (Antedon)
2. Sea hare (Aplysia)
3. Sea urchin (Echinus)
4. Sea cucumber (Cucumaria)Deselect Answer

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66. Choose the incorrect vertebrate character

1. Ventral muscular heart
2. Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
3. Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs
4. None of the aboveDeselect Answer

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67. Which of the following group does not represent a class?

1) Amphibia
2) Cyclostomata
3) Osteichthyes
4) Pisces

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68. Assertion: Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
Reason: Larvae of cyclostome is metamorphosed in fresh water.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
4. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correctDeselect Answer

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None

69. Which of the following are characteristics of morphology of frog?
I. Exoskeleton and tympanum
II. Immovable lower eyelid and vocal sac
III. Nictitating membrane and protruding eye
IV. Pair of hind legs and vascularised skin

Options:

1) I, II and III
2) II and III only
3) III and IV only
4) I, III and IV

Deselect Answer

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70. Pulmonary respiration occurs by A while cutaneous respiration occurs through B.

1. A- Lungs, B- Mouth
2. A- Skin, B- Mouth
3. A- Skin, B- Lungs
4. A- Lungs, B- SkinDeselect Answer

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71. Select the correct statements.
I. In frog, RBC are nucleated, do not contain haemoglobin
II. Lymph do not contain RBC
III. Sinus venosus receives blood through vena cava
IV. Heart is covered by pericardium

Options:

1) I, II, IV
2) II, III, IV
3) I, III, IV
4) II and IV only

Deselect Answer

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72. Which of the following receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juice from pancreas?

1) Stomach
2) Ileum
3) Rectum
4) Duodenum

Deselect Answer

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73. Which of the following shows sexual dimorphism in frog?

1. Slender body and darker color
2. Tympanum and dermal plicae
3. Dermal plicae and vocal sac
4. Copulatory pad and nictitating membraneDeselect Answer

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None

74. Prominent endocrine glands found in frog are
I. Gonads and adrenals
II. Hypothalamus and pituitary
III. Pineal body and thyroid

1) I and II
2) II and III
3) I and III
4) I, II, III

Deselect Answer

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75. Assertion : Final digestion and absorption take place in the small intestine.
Reason: The intestine of frog possesses villi and microvilli

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer

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None

76. Which of the following is responsible for control and coordination of involuntary activities of visceral organs?

1) CNS
2) PNS
3) ANS
4) All of above

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None

77. Regarding brain of frog, olfactory lobe, cerebral hemisphere, diencephalon are found in

1) Forebrain
2) Midbrain
3) Hindbrain
4) None of above

Deselect Answer

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78. Assertion (A): Frogs maintain ecological balance
Reason (R): Frogs serve as important link of food chain and food web in ecosystem

Options:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect but R is correct

Deselect Answer

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79. Statement I: Frogs are poikilothermic meaning they have constant body temperature.
Statement II: Body of frog is divided into head, thorax and trunk

1. Both statement I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correctDeselect Answer

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None

80. The alimentary canal of frog is short because they are

1) Herbivores
2) Omnivores
3) Carnivores
4) None of above

Deselect Answer

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None

81. Assertion: Frog can respire on land and in water.
Reason: The vascular system of frog is under developed.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer

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None

82. Select the false statement from the following:

1. Frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect themselves from extreme heat known as aestivation
2. Body is streamlined to help them move on land
3. Frogs never drinks water but absorb it through skin
4. Vocal sac act as resonators to intensify sound of croakingDeselect Answer

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83. Match the following:
1. Spinal nerves – a) 10-12
2. Vasa efferentia – b) 1 pair
3. Oviduct – c)10 pairs
4. Cranial nerves – d) 9 pairs

Options:
1. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
2. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
3. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-c
4. 1-a, 2-d, 3- c, 4-b

Deselect Answer

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84. Frogs camouflage while on land but mimicry while in water. Select the correct option.

1. True for camouflage but false for mimicry
2. True for both
3. False for both
4. False for camouflage but true for mimicryDeselect Answer

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None

85. In which organ do ventricle open on the ventral side of heart?

1. Sinus venosus
2. Truncus arteriosus
3. Conus arteriosus
4. Right auricleDeselect Answer

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None

86. Regarding eye of frog, select the correct statement.

1. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane
2. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane
3. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membrane
4. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membraneDeselect Answer

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87. Select the correct option for the given diagram:

1. A-seminiferous tubule, B- Bidder’s canal, C-urinogenital duct, D- cloacal aperture
2. A- vasa efferentia, B- adrenal gland, C- urinogenital duct, D- cloaca
3. A- vasa efferentia, B- Bidder’s canal, C- cloaca, D- cloacal aperture
4. A- seminiferous tubules, B-adrenal gland, C- vasa efferentia, D- cloacaDeselect Answer

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88. In frog, ova passed from ovarian funnel to ovisac by

1) Ureter
2) Urinogenital duct
3) Oviduct
4) Ovarian follicles

Deselect Answer

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89. Select the correct statement regarding frog.

1. Egg is centrolecithal
2. Nymphal stage is tadpole
3. Mature female can lay 2000 to 3500 ova at a time
4. Iodine is useful for metamorphosis of tadpole to adultDeselect Answer

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None

90. During summer sleep, gaseous exchange takes place through which organ.

1) Skin
2) Lungs
3) Buccopharyngeal
4) All of above

Deselect Answer

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None

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