NEET TEST SERIES 119 BIOLOGY -

Name

1. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

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2. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

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None

3. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

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None

4. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

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None

5. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers – Initiation of the heart beat

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6. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

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7. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

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None

8. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.

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9. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

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10. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

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11. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using which of the following?
1. dNTPs 2. Mg²+
3. dATPs 4. Ca²+

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

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None

12. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) Transformation is the procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into host bacterium.
b) If many copies of target DNA are to be achieved, then it should be cloned in vector with high copy number.
c) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to ampicillin is transferred into E.coli cells, then the host cells become transformed into any antibiotic resistant cells.
d) Presence of many recognition sites in the vector will generate several DNA fragments which may complicate gene cloning

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13. Multiple alleles are present

a) on different chromosomes
b) at the same locus of the chromosome
c) at different loci on the same chromosome
d) on non-sister chromatids

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14. An individual with XxYy genotype is producing four types of gametes as XY, Xy, xY, xy by meiosis. If the frequency of these gametes is 25% each, then, it explains

a) Mutations
b) Independent assortment
c) Incomplete linkage
d) Complete linkage

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15. In a fish, gold skin colour (G) is dominant to black skin colour (g) and split tail fin (S) is dominant to single tail fin (s). A breeder crosses a male fish having GgSs genotype with a female fish having ggSs genotype. Determine the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny.

(a) 3:1
(b) 9:7
(c) 3:1:3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

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None

16. Whale, seal and shark show which of the following?

a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Natural selection
d) Hybridisation

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17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding genetic drift?

a) Mechanism for evolution of new species
b) Founder effect is a special case
c) Random change in allele frequency in a population
d) Significant only in large population

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None

18. Organic compounds required for origin of life were

a) Urea and amino acids
b) Proteins and amino acids
c) Urea and nucleic acids
d) Proteins and nucleic acids

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19. At a particular locus, frequency of allele ‘A’ is 0.7 and that of allele ‘a’ is 0.3. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

(a) 0.42
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.49
(d) 0.9

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20. Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicates that

a) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
b) Frogs will have gills in the future
c) Frogs uses gills for respiration
d) Frogs evolved from Piscean ancestor

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None

NEET TEST SERIES 119 BIOLOGY

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