NEET REVISION TEST X (28.02.2026)

1. A particle moves uniformly in a circle of radius R with a speed v. When it covers a semi-circle (for the first cime), its average velocity is:

3. Photons of light of wavelength, λ = 400 nm are Incident on a composite photocathode consisting of multiple regions with metals having work functions of 2.1 eV and 1.1 eV. The emitted photoelectrons are sent chrough a retarding potential difference, V₀ What is the minimum value of V₀ required to stop all electrons? take: hc = 1240 eV-nm)

4. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as, = 1/√2sin (100πt) Ampere = 1/√2sin (100πt+π/3)Volt
What is the average power consumed by the circuit in watts?

1. √3/4
2. 1/2
3. 1/8
4. 1/4

5. What is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent to its circular edge, where M is the mass and R is the radius?

1. 1/2 MR²
2. 3/2 MR²
3. 1/4 MR²
4. 2/3 MR²

6. A solid metallic sphere of radius R is taken to a depth h below the surface of water (density p). The fractional change in its radius(-∆R/R)due to compressive stress is: (Y: Young’s modulus, B: Bulk modulus)

1. hpq/Y
2. hpq/3Y
3. hpq/B
4. hpq/3B

7. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an EMF of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be:


1. 30 mA
2. 40 mA
3. 20 mA
4. 35 mA

8. Given below are two statements:
Several resistances R₁, R₂,…..R_n are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the combination is R.
Assertion (A): The fractional error in Ris most affected by that of the smallest resistance in the combination, other things being equal
Reason (R): In parallel, the conductances add. The contribution to the overall error in the conductance is largest for the largest conductance or the smallest resistance.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

9. What should be the length of a simple pendulum – based clock that ticks every second? (take g = 10 m/s²; π² = 10)

1. 4 m
2. 2 m
3. 1 m
4. 0.5 m

10. A DNA sample has a mass of 2 mg, and an RNA sample has a mass three times that of the DNA. What is the ratio of the weight of the DNA to the weight of the RNA if both were weighed on the Moon?

1. 1: 29.4
2. 1:6
3. 1: 4.9
4. 1:3

11. A rod with a uniform cross-sectional area A and length L. has a weight W. It is suspended vertically from a fixed support. If the Young’s modulus for the rod is Y, the elongation produced in the rod will be


1. WL/YA
2. WL/2YA
3. WL/4YA
4. 3WL/4YA

12. Two square metal plates A and B are made of the same material and have identical thickness t. The side length of plate B is twice that of plate A. A current I is passed perpendicularly through the thickness of each plate in their series combination (as shown in the diagram). The ratio of the resistance of two plates R_A/R_B will be:


1. 1/4
2. 1/2
3. 1
4. 4

13. Which of the following statements are true for a moving body?
(A) If its speed changes, its velocity must change and it must have some acceleration.
(B) If its velocity changes, its speed must change and it must have some acceleration.
(C) If its velocity changes, its speed may or may not change, and it must have some acceleration.
(D) If its speed changes but the direction of motion does not change, its velocity may remain constant.
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

14. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): If a constant current flows through a coil, the induced emf in the coil is zero.
Reason (R): This is true because in a situation like this the induced emf in a circuit is proportional to the self-inductance and rate of change of current.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

15. The temperature at which the velocity of sound in air becomes double its velocity at 0°C is:

1. 435°C
2. 694°C
3. 781°C
4. 819°C

16. The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

1. 3π/2rad
2. π/2rad
3. zero
4. rad

17. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is (k_B is Boltzmann constant and T absolute temperature)

1. 3/2 k_B T
2. 5/2 k_B T
3. 7/2 k_B T
4. 1/2 k_B T

22. Wavelengths of light, λ₁= 700nm and λ₂ = 400 nm are used in a standard double-slit experiment. Both the slits emit light, in phase with each other.
If n₁^th maximum corresponding to λ₁ coincides with n₂^th maximum corresponding to λ₂ then, which are the possible values of n₁ and n₂ ?

23. Photons, emitted by excited hydrogen atoms undergoing the transition corresponding to the 1 ^ pi line of the Balmer series, are incident on a photocathode whose work-function is 1 eV. As a result,

1. electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 0.9 eV
2. electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 2.9 eV
3. electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 1.9 eV
4. electrons are not emitted

25. The AC voltage applied to the circuit has a peak value of 200 V and an angular frequency, omega = 300s^-1.The power factor of this circuit equals:


1. 3/5
2. 4/5
3. 3/4
4. 4/3

26. A block of mass m is placed on an incline, where the coefficient of friction is µ. The block is observed to be at rest. The force of friction on the block equals:

1. mg cosθ
2. mg sinθ
3. μmg cosθ
4. μmg sinθ

27. Two identical parallel plate air-capacitors are connected to a battery. The first capacitor (C₁) is filled with a dielectric of relative permittivity K. The ratio of the potential differences across C₁ and C₂e., V₁ / V₂ =


1. 1
2. K
3. 1/K
4. K²

28. In heat transfer, which of the following method is influenced by gravity?

1. natural convection
2. conduction
3. radiation
4. all of the above

29. A beam of light of λ=600 m from a distant source  falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is:

1. 1.2 cm.
2. 1.2 mm
3. 2.4 cm
4. 2.4 mm

30. Two long parallel wires A & B carry equal current in opposite directions. Consider the point X midway between the wires, as also the point Y, which is exactly the same distance from the wire A as X. The wire A bisects the segment XY. The net magnetic fields at X & Y are B_X & B_Y, respectively. B_X/B_Y =


1. 3/2
2. 3
3. 2/3
4. 1/3

31. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Mass of a body decreases slightly  when it is negatively charged.
Reason (R): Charging is due to the transfer of electrons.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

32. If Kepler’s law of time periods were to be stated in terms of the average angular speed w of a planet in orbit and its orbital radius r, then:

1. ω² ∝ r³
2. ω²∝1/r³
3. ω² ∝ r
4. ω² ∝ 1/r

33. What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it emits y-radiation?

1. mass number decreases by four and atomic number decreases by two.
2. mass number and atomic number remain unchanged.
3. mass number remains unchanged while the atomic number decreases by one.
4. mass number increases by four and the atomic number increases by two.

34. A particle of mass m is projected with a speed u at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. When it reaches its maximum height, let its gravitational potential energy be U and its kinetic energy be K.

The gravitational potential energy, when it is at half its maximum elevation, is:

1. K/2
2. K/4
3. 2K
4. 2K

35. The dimensions of velocity gradient, defined symbolically by: dv_x/dy, where v_x is the x-component of velocity and y represents the y-coordinate is:

1. L/T²
2. L/T²
3. 1/T
4. 1/L

1. In Case 1, the net force is 100 N; Case 2, 700 N; and Case 3, 500 Ν.
2. In Case 1, the net force is 700 N; Case 2, 100 N; and Case 3, 500 Ν.
3. In Case 1, the net force is 350 N; Case 2, 50 N; and Case 3, 450 Ν.
4. In Case 1, the net force is 350 N; Case 2, 50 N, and Case 3, 550 Ν.

1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 9%
4. 13%

38. A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at 30° with the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N. The acceleration of the box is: (take g = 10 ms^-2)

1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 9%
4. 13%

41. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process abca as shown in the figure. The change in the internal energy of the gas along the path ca is -180 J. The gas absorbs 250 J of heat along the path ab and 60 J along the path bc. The work done by the gas along the path abc is:

42. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in hydrogen-like atoms results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:

1. 3 → 2
2. 4 → 2
3. 4 → 3
4. 2 → 1

43. The minimum work done by the agent in pulling a small particle of mass m from A to B as shown in the figure is:

1. 4mgR
2. mgR
3. 3mgR 
4. 2mgR

44. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1: 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be:

1. 1:3
2. 3:1
3. (3)^1/3: 1
4. 1:1

45. The impedance (Z) of three electrical components e₁, e₂ and e₃ has frequency (f) dependence as shown by the following three curves:

The three components, e₁, e₂ and e₃ are respectively:

1. R, L, C
2. R, C, L
3. L, R, C
4. C, R, L

CHEMISTRY

46. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following molecules is not expected to be stable?

47. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO₂ is −393.5 KJ/mol. The heat released upon the formation of 35.2 g of CO₂ from carbon and oxygen gas is:

1. −315 KJ
2. +315 KJ
3. −630 KJ
4. +630 KJ

48. On the left are given decreasing orders of elements for a certain property and on the right side is given the property. The incorrect order for the given properties is:

1. AlF₃ > MgO > MgF₂: Lattice energy
2. Li > Na > Al > Mg : Electron affinity
3. PF₅ > SF₆> SiF₄ : Lewis acidic character
4. SiCl₄ > SiBr₄ >SiI₄:Decreasing ionic character

49. Given below are two statements:
Assertion(A): PCl₃ Br₂ has zero dipole moment.
Reason(R): Br atoms occupy axial position while Cl atoms occupy equatorial position.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

50. Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Fridel Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the presence of AlCl₃ to give a compound (B). (B) is oxidized in the presence of air to form the compound (C). The structural formula of (C) is:

51. Which of the following coordination complexes can exist as facial (fac) and meridional (mer) isomers?

1. [Co(NO₂)₃ (NH₃)₃ ]
2. K₃ [Fe(CN)₆ ]
3. [Co(H₂O)₂ (NH₃)₄ ] Cl₃
4. [CoCl(NH₃)₅ ]Cl

52. Based on the successive ionization energies of element X shown in the table below, which of the following is most likely the formula of the compound produced when element X reacts with fluorine?


1. XF
2. XF2
3. XF4
4. XF5

53. The correct order of increasing C-X bond reactivity toward nucleophiles among the following is:


1. III<IV<III
2. IIIII<I<IV
3. IV<III<I4. III<II<I<IV

54. Assertion (A): A mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with a negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
    Reason (R): In such solutions, the intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules of the solution (A-B attractions) are weaker than those of either of the pure components (A-A attractions or B-B attractions).

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

61. Consider the following reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂ (g) → 2NH₃ (g) If the rate of change in the concentration of H₂(g) is -12 mol L^-1 s^– , what is the corresponding rate of change in the concentration of NH₃(g)?

62. Consider the given reaction:
2Cl(g)→ Cl₂ (g
What of Delta*H and Delta*S respectively?

1. ∆H = 0, ∆S = – ve
2. ∆H = 0, ∆S = 0
3. ∆H = – ve, ∆S = – ve
4. ∆H = + ve, ∆S = + ve

63. D (+) glucose yields an oxime with hydroxyl amine. The structure of the oxime would be:

64. Which of the following compounds gives positive Tollen’s Test?

65. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for [CoCl₆]^4- is 18000 cm^-1
The CFSE for [CoCl₄]^2- will be:

1. 6000 cm^-1
2. 16000 cm^-1
3. 18000 cm^-1
4. 8000 cm^-1

66. Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.
b. The ionization enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.
c. Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
d. Xenon fluorides are not reactive.

1. (a, b)
2. (b, c)
3. (c, d)
4. (a, d)

67. A, X, Y, and Z in the above-mentioned reaction are

68. D-glucose upon treatment with nitric acid gives:

69. Hyperconjugation involves the delocalization of:

1. σ electron
2. π- electron.
3. Both σ and π electrons
4. Proton

71. The empirical formula of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH₂. The mass of one litre of this organic gas at STP is exactly equal to that of one litre of N₂ at STP. Therefore, the molecular formula of the organic gas is:

1. C₂ H₄
2. C₃ H₆
3. C₆ H₁₂
4. C₄ H₈

72. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): P-Toluidine is a stronger base than m-toluidine
Reason (R): The methyl group from m-position exerts a smaller electron-donating inductive (+1) effect than from p-position.

Options:
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

73. If uncertainty in position and momentum are both equal, what will the uncertainty in velocity be?

74. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?

1. NaOH-Br₂
2. Sodalime
3. Hot conc. H₂ SO₄
4. PC1₃

75. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g of water, the freezing point of the solution was found to be – 0.93 ℃.The number (n) of benzoic acid molecules associated (assuming 100% association) is:(K_f (H₂O) = 1.86K kg mol^-1)

1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 5

76. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of metallic character: Si, Be, Mg, Na, P

1. P < Si < Bc < Mg= Na
2. P Be < Mg < Na
3. P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
4. P < Si < Be < Mg < Na

77. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C₃ H₉N ?

1. Four (4)
2. Five (5)
3. Two (2)
4. Three (3)

78. If a₀ is the radius of the H-atom and the de-Broglie wavelength of e in 3^rd orbit of Li²⁺ ion is xπa₀, then the value of x is:

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

79. Compounds that can exhibit tautomerism, are:

1. I and II
2. 1 and III
3. II and III
4. 1, II and III

80. Compound (A), C₈H₉Br, gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcholic AgNO₃. Oxidation of (A) gives an acid (B), C₂H₂O (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A).

81. Ozonolysis of propyne gives:

1. CH₃ CHO
2. CH₃ COCHO
3. HCHO
4. CHOCHO

82. S_NI reaction is feasible in:

83. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10^-3 S cm^-1 at 298 K is:

1. 11.5 S cm²/mol        
2. 21.5 S cm²/mol  
3. 31.5 S cm²/mol  
4. 41.5 S cm²/mol  

84. On adding inert gas at constant volume, equilibrium shifts in the forward direction will take place in –

1. N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) = 2NH₃ (g)
2. PCl₅(g) PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)
3. H₂ (g) + I₂ (g) = 2HI(g)
4. None of the above.

85. In a set of reactions, ethyl benzene yielded a product D.

86. [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄ is a blue soluble complex. The blue colour of this complex is due to the presence of:

1. [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
2. Cu²⁺
3. SO₄^2-
4. [Cu(NH₃)₆]²⁺

87. Match the allotropes of cabon given in List I with the respective characteristics given in List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:          
    (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)
1.  III         IV           I            II
2.  II          IV          I           III
3.  IV         I            II          III
4.  III         I            IV          II

88. The correct representation of an exothermic reaction is:

89. Consider the given dissociation reaction
HX_(aq)  ⇌ H_(aq)⁺  +X_(aq)^– with an acid dissociation constant (K_a) of 1.2 × 10^-5.What is the osmotic pressure (in atm) of a 0.03 M HX solution at 300 K?

1. 4 atm
2. 2 atm
3. 1 atm
4. 6 atm

90. Diamagnetic lanthanoid ion among the following is: (At nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

1. Sm²⁺
2. Eu²⁺
3. Yb²⁺
4. Ce²⁺

BIOLOGY

91. Given below are two statements:
Assertion(A): Porphyra is a member of Rhodophyceae and called red alga
Reason (R): Predominant pigment in Porphyra is a red pigment, r-phycoerythrin

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

92. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): In Grasshoppers, the males have an odd number and females have an even number of chromosomes.
Reason (R): Males develop parthenogenetically in Grasshoppers.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

93. Assertion (A): The female anopheles mosquito is not considered a parasite
Reason (R): The bite of the female anopheles mosquito injects infective stage of malarial parasite into human blood

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

94. The molecule shown in the given figure:


1. is a lipid
2. constitutes majority of a cell membrane in animal cells
3. is a macromolecule
4. is hydrophilic

95. Adisson’s disease:
I: is caused by excessive secretion of adrenal cortex hormones.
II: is characterised by altered carbohydrate metabolism causing acute weakness and fatigue.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

96.Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body?

1. Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
2. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
3. Tight junctions help to perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
4. Gap junctions help to create gap between the cells and tissues.

97. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

1. High pO2 and Lesser H + concentration
2. Low pCO2 and High H + concentration
3. Low pCO2 and High temperature
4. High pO2 and High pCO2

98. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Insulin causes decreased blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia).
Reason (R): Insulin acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of adipose tissue), and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

1. (A) is True; (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
4. (A) is False; (R) is True

99. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the:
I: rate of heartbeat
II: strength of ventricular contraction
III: cardiac output

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

100. The extinct reptilian lineage that evolved into dinosaurs and later on the birds is:

1. Pelycosaurs
2. Synapsids
3. Tuataras
4.Thecodonts

101. Match the parts of the brain with their functions:


1. A − iii, B − i, C − ii
2. A − ii, B − iii, C − i
3. A − i, B − ii, C − iii
4. A − iii, B − ii, C − i

102. The taxonomic category ‘family’ in plants is identified by the following ‘suffix”:

1. -ales
2.-onae
3. -aceae
4.-ae

103. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Frogs have the capability to change the colour and resemble their surroundings.
Reason (R): They are poikilothermous animals.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

104. Consider the following statements regarding green algae:
I: Pigments are located in definite plastids
II: Most have pyrenoids in chloroplasts
III: Cell wall has an inner layer of pectose and outer layer of cellulose

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

105. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Passive immunity is instant immunity.
Reason(R): Passive Immunity results when exposure to a disease causing organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

106. Assertion (A): The genetic sex of an individual with Klinefelter’s syndrome is female
        Reason (R): Only X-chromosome is present in their genotype

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

107. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature:

Select the correct option from the following:

Options:
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

108. During which stage of the meiotic cell division does the centromere split leading to the separation of sister chromatids?

1. Metaphase I
2.Metaphase II
3.Anaphase I
4.Anaphase II

109. Match the pulmonary volume/capacity given in Column-1 with the corresponding description in Column-II and select the correct match from the given:


Codes:
   A B C D
1. P Q R S
2. P Q S R
3. Q P R S
4. Q P S R

110. Milk of transgenic ‘Cow Rosie’ was nutritionally cow milk because it contained: more balanced product for human babies than natural

1. Human protein a-1-antitrypsin.
2. Human alpha-lactalbumin.
3. Human insulin-like growth factor.
4. Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ADA).

111. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because:

1. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination.
2. its embryo is immature.
3. it has an obligate association with mycorrhizae.
4. it has a very hard seed coat

112. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus spongiosum.
II: Association areas are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function.
Ⅲ: Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
IV: The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla
V: Three major regions make up the brain stem: mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

113. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Any subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits highly intensified secondary response of the acquired immune system in our body.
Reason (R): Acquired immune response retains the memory of previous encounters with the antigens

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly explain (A).

114. Assertion (A): Pneumatophores are critical for the survival of certain mangrove species, including Rhizophora.
    Reason (R): Mangrove plants live in unique habitat, which is characterized by waterlogged and often anoxic soil conditions and pneumatophores help in respiration under such conditions.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

115. Endoparasites are generally characterised by:

1. greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
2. greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.
3. highly developed morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
4. highly developed morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.

116. Consider the given statements:
I: Plant growth and development are intimately linked to water status of the plant.
II: Hormones are chemical substances that regulate growth in plants.
III: All discovered Gibberellins are acidic.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct.
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

117. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: The number of ATP molecules synthesised by oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria depends on the nature of the electron donor.
Statement II: Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to 2 molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of FADH, produces 3 molecules of ATP.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
3. Statement 1 is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct

118. The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection is:

1. Humoral immunity
2. Cell mediated immunity
3. Innate immunity
4. Hyperimmunity.

119. The difference between ex situ and in situ conservation is:

1. Ex situ conservation involves protecting an entire ecosystem in its natural habitat, while in situ conservation involves preserving genetic material in gene banks.
2. In situ conservation, involves protecting an entire ecosystem and its inhabitants in their natural habitat, while ex situ conservation involves protecting species by removing part of the population from a threatened habitat and placing it in a new location.
3. In situ conservation involves protecting an entire ecosystem and its inhabitants in their natural habitat, while ex situ conservation involves protecting species by keeping them in locations such as zoos or botanical gardens.
4. Ex situ conservation involves protecting species in their natural habitat, while in situ conservation involves research on species in laboratories.

120. PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone. Which of the following statements will explain this function of PTH?
I: PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption (dissolution/demineralisation).
II: PTH stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
III. PTH increases Ca²+ absorption from the digested food

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I. II and III

121. Match the following Column-1 with Column-II and select the correct option


    A    B    C   D
1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

122. Consider the following two statements:
A: The genetic code is degenerate.
B: The genetic code is ambiguous.

1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is correct.
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.

123. Identify the incorrect statement regarding prophase stage of mitosis:

1. It follows the G₂ phases of interphase.
2. It is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
3. The centrosome undergoes duplication during this phase in animal cells.
4. By the end of this phase, chromosomes are seen to be composed of two chromatids attached together at the centromere.

124. In agar gel electrophoresis, the restriction fragments produced by restriction enzymes:

1. move towards cathode
2. do not move at all
3. are separated according to size with smaller fragments moving farther
4. are transported onto a nitrocellulose membrane

125. Collenchyma cells are characterized by:

1. Uniformly thickened non-lignified cell walls
2. Thickened corners with a high concentration of cellulose and pectin
3. Lignified cell walls
4. Being dead and providing mechanical support only

126. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol-lowering agent?

1. Lipase
2. Cyclosporin A
3. Statin.
4. Streptokinase

127. Which of the following correctly represents the order of taxonomic categories from lowest to highest?

1. Species→ Genus →Family→ Order→ Class
2. Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order →Species
3. Family → Genus→ Species → Class → Order
4. Class → Family → Genus → Species → Order

128. 𝐶4 plants are special. Which of the following will be true for C, plants?
a. They have a special type of leaf anatomy
b. They tolerate higher temperature
c. They show a response to high light intensities
d. They lack a process called photorespiration
e. They have greater productivity of biomass

1. All except (e)
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. All
4. (a), (b). (d) and (e) only

129. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an inner layer called trophoblast and an outer group of cells attached to trophoblast called the outer cell mass.
Statement II: The outer cell mass then gets attached to the myometrium and the trophoblast cells get differentiated as the embryo.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

130. Which of the following statements about white blood cells (leukocytes) is NOT correct?

1. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells in most mammals and form an essential part of the innate immune system.
2. Lymphocytes are involved in the creation of antibodies, which are crucial for the adaptive immune response.
3. Monocytes mature into macrophages and dendritic cells, which can engulf and destroy pathogens through phagocytosis.
4. Eosinophils are primarily responsible for the body’s response to parasitic infections and are the predominant white blood cell type in human blood

131. Plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix sun’s radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic materials\ where plants capture:

1. Less than 1% of PAR
2. 2-10% of PAR
3. 30% of PAR
4. 50% of PAR

132. At the end of prophase, which structures are no longer visible under the microscope?

1. Chromosomes
2. Centrioles
3. Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus, and nuclear envelope
4. Spindle fibres

133. A minimal amount of pleural fluid present in the pleural cavity:

1. provides a medium for the exchange of respiratory gases
2. reduces friction between the visceral and parietal pleurae
3. provides lubrication for movements of the diaphragm
4. permits the exchange of electrolytes during respiration

134. Assertion(A): Selection of recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate is more cumbersome than selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics.
       Reason (R): A selectable marker is a gene introduced into a cell, especially a bacterium or to cells in culture, that confers a trait suitable for artificial selection.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.

135. ‘Pericarp’ is a derivative of which of the following structures?

1. integuments
2. endosperm
3. ovule wall
4. ovary wall

136. Which of the following statements concerning the Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

1. SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
2. RER has ribosomes attached to ER
3. SER is devoid of ribosomes
4. In prokaryotes, only RER is present

137. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the best match from the codes given:

Codes:
   A B C
1. P Q R
2. P R Q
3. R P Q
4. R Q P

138. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of:

1. Implants only
2. Injections only
3. Pills, injections and implants
4. Pills only

139. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: ABO blood grouping is based on the presence or absence of natural antibodies on the RBC surface, namely A and B.
Statement II: Plasma of different individuals contains twosurface antigens (chemicals that induce an immune response).
Choose the correct option:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

140. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: ADH increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the nephron.
Statement II: ADH secretion is stimulated when blood osmolarity decreases.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.

141. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Taxonomists have been able to identify a vast majority of species present on Earth.
Statement II: The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7-1.8 million.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

142. Methanogens:
I: are commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment.
II: are also present in the rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

143. Match each item in Column I with one item in given: Column II and select the best match from the codes given:


Codes:
   A B C D
1. R S P Q
2. Q R S P
3. S P Q R
4. P Q R S

144. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: lodine test can detect the presence of starch but not of cellulose in a given sample.
Statement II: Starch forms helical secondary structure and can hold iodine molecules while cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II correctly explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not correctly explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

145. What is the primary role of anaerobic sludge digesters in sewage treatment plants?

1. To aerate the sludge for microbial activity.
2. To separate suspended solids from effluent.
3. To sediment bacterial flocs into activated sludge.
4. To anaerobically digest bacteria and fungi in the sludge and produce biogas.

146. Chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm center is highly sensitive to
A: Carbon dioxide B: Oxygen
C: Hydrogen ions

1. Only A and B
2. Only A and C
3. Only B and C
4. A, B and C

147. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram:

148. The reaction-center chlorophyll of a photosystem in higher plant is:

1. chlorophyll a
2. chlorophyll b
3.chlorophyll c
4.chlorophyll d

149. Which of the following statements about In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is correct?

1. IVF involves the direct transfer of the embryo into the uterus without the need for fertilization in a lab.
2. The fertilization of the egg occurs inside the female body, and the embryo is then transferred to the laboratory for further development.
3. IVF is a process where the egg and sperm are fertilized outside the body, and the zygote or early-stage embryo is then transferred to the uterus.
4. Only eggs are collected from the mother and fertilized with donor sperm in a laboratory setting: the zygotes are not transferred back to the original mother’s uterus.

150. Both Xylem and Phloem are complex tissues. At maturity, the living component of xylem and the dead component of phloem respectively are:

1. Xylem parenchyma and Phloem parenchyma
2. Xylem parenchyma and Phloem fibres
3. Xylem fibres and Phloem fibres
4. Xylem fibres and Phloem parenchyma

151. Identify the incorrect match regarding the events shown in the given figure:


1. A.Cross bridge formation.
2. B.The power (working) stroke.
3. C. Cross bridge detachment.
4. D. Relaxation of myosin head.

152. All the following are male accessory reproductive glands, except:

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Testes
3. Prostate
4. Bulbourethral gland

153. In artificial hybridization, why is emasculation necessary for bisexual flowers?

1. To remove the stigma and prevent unwanted pollination
2. To enhance the production of nectar and attract pollinators
3. To remove the entire flower to prevent contamination
4. To remove the anthers and prevent self-pollination

154. What is the purpose of ICZN?

1. To regulate the names of animal species
2. To control the import and export of zoological specimens
3. To promote zoology as a field of study globally
4. To provide guidelines for botanical gardens

155. Match each excretory organ with the corresponding example of an animal or group of animals:


Options
   A B C D
1. R P Q S
2. P Q R S
3. S R Q P
4. S P R Q

156. Which of the following will not be an example of passive immunity?

1. Foetus receiving antibodies from their mother, through placenta.
2. Immunity conferred by IgA antibodies present in colostrums.
3. Giving antivenom [containing antibodies against venom] after snake bite
4. A person developing immunity after natural infection by a pathogen

157. Which of the following are also called as ‘minisatellite’ loci in human genome?

1. hnRNA
2. SNPs
3. ds-dy elements
4. VNTR

158. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
2. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
3. The fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
4. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.

159. Which of the following best describes the concept of “bioprospecting” as it relates to biodiversity conservation?

1. Exploring biodiversity hotspots exclusively for aesthetic and recreational purposes.
2. Investigating molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity to discover economically valuable resources.
3. Monitoring endangered species populations for scientific documentation.
4. Mapping biodiversity to identify areas for in situ conservation efforts.

160. The key difference between Homo habilis and Homo erectus is:

1. Homo habilis used tools made of stone, while Homo erectus did not use any tools.
2. Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of 900 cc, unlike Homo habilis who had a cranial capacity of about 650 to 800 сс.
3. Homo habilis was capable of language, whereas Homo erectus was not.
4. Homo erectus lived in larger social groups compared to Homo habilis

161. All the following are related to the limbic system in the human brain except:

1. Amygdala
2. Hippocampus
3. Olfactory bulb
4. Corpus callosum

162. Regarding Sexually Transmitted Infections [STI]:
I: Some of them may be transmitted without sexual contact as well.
II: All STIs are incurable.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

163. Spraying sugarcane crops with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the stem’s length, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre?

1. Auxins
2. Gibberellins
3.Cytokinins
4. ABA

164. Why are pollen grains of angiosperms wellpreserved as fossils?

1. Because the exine layer of pollen grains is made of cellulose, which resists degradation by environmental factors.
2. Because the exine is composed of sporopollenin, a highly resistant organic material that can withstand high temperatures, strong acids, alkali, and enzymatic degradation.
3. Because the germ pores in the exine allow easy fossilization of pollen grains by facilitating mineral deposition.
4. Because the exine layer is completely absent, making 4. the pollen grains resistant to environmental degradation.

165. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): PCR has revolutionized the molecular diagnosis and allows early diagnosis in many cases.
Reason (R): PCR can detect very low amounts of DNA in a sample.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

166. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during the industrial revolution. This is an example of:

1. natural selection, whereby the darker forms were selected
2. appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
3. protective mimicry
4. inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment

167. Normally a transcription unit will include all of the following except:

1. Operator
2. Promoter
3. Structural gene
4. Terminator

168. A factor that is least likely to affect enzyme activity will be:

1. Temperature
2. pH
3. Substrate concentration
4. Enzyme concentration

169. The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule, arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or slit pores, are called as:

1. Macula densa
2. Juxtaglomerular cells
3. Podocytes
4. Mesangial cells

170. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Plants that do not use PEPcarboxylase in primary carbon fixation are called C3 plants.
Reason (R): 𝐶3 plants are so called because, the primary carboxylation reaction, catalyzed by RuBisCO, produces the three-carbon 3-phosphoglyceric acids directly in the Calvin-Benson cycle.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

171. Identify the correct statement regarding typhoid fever in human beings:

1. It is caused by a pathogenic protozoan Salmonella typhi
2. The pathogen remains confined to the small intestine
3. Widal test can confirm the infection very early in the disease
4. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases

172. Which of the following fungus does not belong to the Class Ascomycetes?

1. Rhizopus
2.Aspergillus
3. Neurospora
4.Claviceps

173. The Floral Diagram represents which one of the following families?


1.Fabaceae
2.Brassicaceae
3.Solanaceae
4.Liliaceae

174. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl with:

1. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
2. alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
3. phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
4. homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency

175. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at specific sites.
Reason (R): All restriction enzymes create sticky ends

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

176. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason (R): Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

177. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals.
Identify the type of given pedigree:


1. Autosomal dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. Autosomal recessive
4. X-linked dominant

178. During the menstrual cycle, the follicular phase in the ovary coincides with what phase in the uterus?

1. Secretory
2. Menstrual
3. Proliferative
4. Luteal

179. Consider the following statements regarding incomplete dominance:
Statement I: In incomplete dominance, the Fi phenotype is intermediate between the two parents.
Statement II: The phenotypic and genotypic ratios in the F₂ generation are identical.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.

180. What is the role of the adapter molecule tRNA in translation?

1. It transfers mRNA to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
2. tRNA initiates the transcription of DNA into mRNA.
3. tRNA decodes the mRNA codon sequence by matching it with its complementary anticodon and brings the corresponding amino acid.
4. tRNA synthesizes proteins by catalyzing peptide bond formation between amino acids