NEET FULL TEST 3 (22.03.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 3 (22.03.2025)

Name

ZZR

Important Instructions:

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

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2. If the unit of force were 10N, that of power were 1MW and that of time 1 millisecond then the unit of length would be:

a) 10 m
b) 100 m
c) 10^-1 m
d) 10^-2 m

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3.

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 6%
d) 12%

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4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate ‘α’ for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate ‘β’ to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, maximum velocity reached by the car is

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5. A ball is moving with speed 20 m/s collides with a smooth surface as shown in figure. The magnitude of change in velocity in m/s of the ball will be:

a) 10√3
b) 40√3
c) 20
d) 20√3

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6. If impulse I varies with time t as I = (30t²-360t) kgms^-1. The change in momentum is minimum at t equals

a) 5s
b) 6s
c) 4s
d) 3s

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7. The horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is

a) 2 N
b) 10 N
c) 20 N
d) none

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8. An older model car accelerates from 0 to speed v in a time interval of Δt. A newer, more powerful sports car accelerates from 0 to 3v in the same time period. Assuming the energy coming from the engine appears only as kinetic energy of the cars and that the cars are of same mass. Choose correct statement

a) The power of the sports car is three times that of the older-model car
b) The power of the sports car is six times that of the older-model car
c) The power of the sports car is equal that of the older-model car
d) The power of the sports car is nine times that of the older-model car

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9. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kgm²about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 120 rpm about the axis. the torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in 90 seconds would be

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10. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density ρ is bent into a circular loop with centre at O as shown. The moment of inertia of loop about axis XX’ is

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11. Match the column-I with column-II, for a satellite in circular orbit

(Where M_E is the mass of the earth, m is mass of the satellite and r is the radius of the orbit)
a) A–r, B–s, C–q, D–p
b) A–s, B–r, C–p, D–q
c) A–p, B–q, C–s, D–r
d) A–q, B–p, C–r, D–s

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12. A projectile is fired with a speed v=√2gRfrom the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will be

a) 2gR
b) √2gR
c) gr² d) √gR

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13. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If kinetic energy of rotation is 40% of kinetic energy in translatory state, then the body is a

a) cylinder
b) circular ring
c) solid sphere
d) none

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14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option among the following.
Statement-A: In pure translational motion at any instant of time, all particles of the body have the same velocity.
Statement-B: In pure rotation of the rigid body about a fixed axis, every particle of the body moves in a circle, which lies in a plane parallel to the axis and has its centre on the axis.

a) Both A & B are correct
b) Neither A is correct nor B is correct
c) A is incorrect and B is correct
d) A is correct and B is incorrect

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15. Two-point masses m₁ and m₂ at rest in gravity-free space are released from distance d. Find the velocity of centre of mass of system in m/s at the time of collision of masses

a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 1

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16. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole

a) gets larger
b) gets smaller
c) remains of the same size
d) gets deformed

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17. In a water-fall the water falls from a height of 100 m. If the entire K.E. of water is converted into heat, the rise in temperature of water will be

a) 0.23 °C
b) 0.46 °C
c) 2.3 °C
d) 0.023 °C

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18. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is

a) zero
b) equal to heat given to the system
c) more than heat given to the system
d) independent of heat given to the system

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19. Choose the incorrect statement related to an isobaric process.

a) V/T=constant
b) W = PΔV
c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising the temperature only.
d) D. ΔQ > W

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20. A diatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic change according to the P-V diagram shown in the figure. The total heat given to the gas is nearly (use ln 2 = 0.7)

a) 2.5 P₀V₀
b) 1.4 P₀V₀
c) 1.1 P₀ V₀ d) 3.9 P₀ V₀

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21. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
d) 0.61 × 10⁹

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22. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a point A to point B, then

a) V_A-V_B= +ve
b) V_A-V_B = 0
c) V_A-V_B=-ve
d) it is stationary

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23. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect to distance (s) from centre as

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)

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24. Three capacitors are connected in the arms of a triangle ABC as shown in figure 5 V is applied between A and B. The voltage between B and C is

a) 2 V
b) 1 V
c) 3 V
d) 1.5 V

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25. The voltage V and current I graphs for a conductor at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ are shown in the figure. The relation between T₁ and T₂ is

a) T₁ > T₂
b) T₁ < T₂
c) T₁ = T₂
a) T₁ > 1/T₂

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26. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed

a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the ground state
b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited states and the first excited state
c) in any transition in a H-atom
d) None of these

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27. Currents flowing in each of the circuits A and B respectively are

a) 1 A, 2A
b) 2A, 1A
c) 4A, 2A
d) 2A, 4A

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28. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.

Output is:

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)

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29. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents
a) NOR gate
b) AND gate
c) NAND gate
d) OR gate

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30. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels

a) remain the same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.

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31. For a constant force the work done in stretching if spring constant k1>k2 then energy stored in two wire related as

a) ω1>ω2
b) ω1=ω2
c) ω1<ω2
d) ω2=2ω1

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32. The displacement of an elastic wave is given by the function y=3sinωt+4cosωt. where y is in cm and t is in second. Calculate the resultant amplitude.

a) 3 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 7 cm

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33. When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the capillary.

a) the surface tension of the liquid must be zero
b) the contact angle must be 90∘
c) the surface tension may be zero
d) the contact angle may be 90∘

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34. A load of 3kg produces an extension of 1.5mm in a wire of length 3m and diameter 2mm. Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is

a) 1.87×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
b) 3.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
c) 15×10¹⁰Nm⁻²d) 2.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²

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35. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found than 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78

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36. Two similar thin Equi-convex lenses, of focal f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1, When the space between the two lens is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index μ=1.5 as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2, the ratio F1:F2 will be

a) 3:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 2:3

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37. A 2.5 m long straight wire having mass of 500 g is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. If a current of 4 A is passing through the wire, then the magnitude of the field is (Take g 10ms−2)

a) 0.5T
b) 0.6T
c) 0.25T
d) 0.8T

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38. A current-carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without touching it. The correct statement(s) is (are)

a) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant.
b) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant.
c) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate.
d) The emf induction in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate.

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39. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) infinity

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40. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is.

a) blue
b) green
c) violet
d) red

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41. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81:1. What is the ratio of amplitudes of light waves coming from them?

a) 3:1
b) 3:2
c) 9:1
d) 6:1

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42. The specific charge of a proton is 9.6×107C kg⁻¹. The specific charge of an alpha particle will be

a) 9.6×10⁷C kg⁻¹
b) 19.2×10⁷C kg⁻¹
c) 4.8×10⁷C kg⁻¹
d) 2.4×10⁷C kg⁻¹

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43. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0

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44. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.

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45. A small angled prism (μ=1.62) gives a deviation of 4.8. Calculate the angle of prism.

a) 5°
b) 6.36°
c) 3°
d) 7.74°

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CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

a) [Ne] 3s¹
b) [Ne] 3s²c) [Xe] 6s¹
d) [Xe] 6s²

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47. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg

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47. Calculate the wavenumber for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of atomic Hydrogen

a) 27 X 10 ⁶ m^-1b) 523 X 10 ⁶ m^-1c) 43 X 10 ^-4m^-1
d) 43 X 10^-6 m^-1

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48. The ionization enthalpy of H- atom is 1.312 X 10⁶ J/mol. The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from n=1 to n=2 is

a) 46 X 10 ⁵ J/mol

b) 1 X 10 ⁵ J/mol

c) 85 X 10 ⁵ J/mol

d) 57 X 10 ⁶ J/mol

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49. Choose the correct order regarding Lattice enthalpy

a) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
b) LiF < NaF < KF < RbF
c) AlCl₃ > BaCl₂ > NaCl
d) All are correct

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50. The shape and Hybridisation of I₃^– ion are

a) Trigonal Planar, sp³
b) Trigonal Bipyramidal, sp³d
c) Trigonal Bipyramidal, dsp³
d) Linear, dsp³

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51. Choose the incorrect about the d-orbitals used in different types of hybridizations

a) sp³d- d_x2-y2
b) sp³d² – d_x2–_y2, d_z2
c) sp³d³ – d_xy, d_yz, d_zx
d) dsp² – d_x2-y2

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53. Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in Lactose?

a) C-1 of Galactose and C-4 of glucose
b) C-2 of Galactose and C-4 of glucose
c) C-1 of Glucose and C-4 of Galactose
d) C-1 of Glucose and C-6 of Galactose

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54. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Pyorrhea

a) Vitamin B₁ b) Vitamin B₆c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

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55. The correct order of melting point in Group 17 (halogen) is

a) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂
b) F₂ < Cl₂ < Br₂ < I₂
c) F₂ < Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂
d) F₂ < Cl₂ > Br₂ < I₂

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56. The boiling points of HF, HCl, HBr and HI follow the order

a) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
b) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
c) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI

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57. ASSERTION : F2 has low reactivity
REASON : F-F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

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58. The colour of CrO₄^2- and Cr₂O₇^2- ions are due to

a) d – d transition
b) f – f transition
c) Charge transfer
d) A and C

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59. Which one is coloured?

a) [Sc (H₂O)₆]³⁺
b) [Zn (H₂O)₆]²⁺
c) Cu₂Cl₂
d) [Ti (H₂O)₆]³⁺

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60. How many unpaired electrons and sum of spin are present in Gadolinium (Z= 64)

a) 7, 2
b) 7, 4
c) 8, 4
d) 8, 8

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61. Equal masses of H₂, O₂and CH₄ have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27⁰C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volume of gases H₂: O₂ : CH₄ would be?

a) 8:16:1
b) 1:6:8:1

c) 16:1:2
d) 8:1:2

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62. If Avogadro number N_Ais changed from 6.022×10²³mol⁻¹ to 6.022×10²⁰mol⁻¹, this would change

a) The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
b) The ratio of elements to each other in a compound
c) The definition of mass in units of grams
d) The mass of one mole of carbon

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63. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. This brings?

a) A decrease in boiling point of solution
b) An increase in boiling point of the solution
c) A decrease in freezing point of the solution
d) An increase in freezing point of the solution

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64. What weight of NaCl is added to one litre of water so that
ΔT/K_f =1500?

a) 5.85 g
b) 0.585 g
c) 0.0585 g
d) 0.0855 g

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65. The molarity of 20% (W/W) solution of sulphuric acid is 2.55 M. The density of the solution is?

a) 1.25 g cm⁻³
b) 0.125 g L⁻¹
c) 2.25 g cm⁻³
d) unpredictable

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66. The standard electrode potential for Daniell cell is 1.1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction.
Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)

a) 312.21 k J mol^-1b) -212.27 k J mol^-1c) 415.32 k J mol^-1
d) -168.32 k J mol^-1

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67. 6 mole of PCl₅, 0.3 mole of PCl₃ and 0.5 mole of Cl₂ are taken in a 1 L flask to obtain the following equilibrium
PCl₅ (g) ⇌ PCl₃ (g) + Cl₂ (g)
If the equilibrium constant K_c for the reaction is 0.2. Predict the direction of reaction.

a) Forward
b) Backward
c) Neither forward or backward
d) Same in both direction

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68. The rate of certain hypothetical reaction A + B + C →Products, is given by

a) 1
b) 1/2
c) 13/12
d) 2

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70. Consider the given diagram for 1 mole of a gas X and answer the following question.

The process A → B represents

a) isobaric change
b) isothermal change
c) adiabatic change
d) isochoric change

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71. Bond dissociation energy of CH₄is 360 kJ/mol and C₂H₆ is 620 kJ/mol. Then bond dissociation energy of C — C bond is :-

a) 170 kJ/mol
b) 50 kJ/mol
c) 80 kJ/mol
d) 220 kJ/mol

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72. In an equilibrium A + B ⇌ C + D, A and B were mixed in vessel at temperature T. The initial concentration of A was twice the initial concentration of B. After the equilibrium has reaches, concentration of C was thrice the equilibrium concentration of B. Calculate K_eq.

a) 12.6
b) 16.4
c) 4.2
d) 1.8

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73. For the following gaseous equilibrium, N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g) K_P is found to be equal to K_c. This is attained when temperature is?

a) 0⁰C
b) 273 K
c) 1 K
d) 12.19 K

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74. The molar heat capacities at constant pressure (assumed constant with respect to temperature ) of A, B and C are in ratio 3:1.5:2.0. If enthalpy change for the exothermic reaction A+ 2B → 3Cat 300 K and 310 K is ΔH 300 and ΔH 310 respectively then:

a) ΔH 300 > ΔH 310
b) ΔH 300 < ΔH 310
c) ΔH 300 = ΔH 310
d) If T₂>T₁then ΔH 310 > ΔH 300 and if T₂< T₁ then ΔH 300 < ΔH 300

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75. In the cell, Pt (s) ∣ H₂ (g, 1 bar ) ∣ HCl(aq) ∣ AgCl (s) ∣Ag (s) ∣ Pt (s) the cell potential is 0.92 V when a 10⁻⁶ molal HCl solution is used. The standard electrode potential of (AgCl/ Ag, Cl⁻) electrode is {Given, = 0.06 V at 298 K}

a) 0.40 V
b) 0.94 V
c) 0.76 V
d) 0.20 V

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76. The ozonolysis of an olefin gives only propanone. The olefin is

a) but-1-ene
b) but-2-ene
c) 2, 3-dimethylbut-2-ene
d) propene

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77. In the following reaction

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78. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is

a) P > Q > R > S
b) Q > R > S > P
c) S > Q > R > P
d) S > R > Q > P

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79. A mixture of NH₄Cl and NaCl can be separate by

a) Filtratiom
b) Distilatiom
c) Sublimation
d) Crystalization

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80.

a) A,B
b) A,B,C
c) B,C
d) B only

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81. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction –

a) C₆H₅Cl
b) CH₂=CHCI
c) CICH₂CH=CH₂
d) CH₃-CH=CHCI

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82. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate on shaking with an aqueous solution of NaOH followed by acidification with dil. HNO₃and addition of AgNO₃solution?

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83. Which of the following shows SN_l reaction most reality

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84.

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85. An organic compound C₆H₉N, A when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N₂ gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl₃ and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine.

Predict the structure of (A)

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86. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Methylamine is more basic than NH3
b) Amines form hydrogen bonds.
c) Ethylamine has higher boiling point than propane.
d) Dimethylamine than methylamine.

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87.

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88. The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react is

a) Fehling’s solution
b) I₂/NaOH
c) Tollens’ reagent
d) Carbonic acid

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89.

a) acetyl chloride
b) acetaldehyde
c) acetylene
d) ethylene

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90. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid?

a) Phenol

b) Benzaldehyde

c) Butanol

d) Benzoic acid

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BOTANY

91. The genetic code is described as degenerate. This means that:

a) A single codon can code for multiple amino acids
b) Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid
c) The code varies between organisms
d) The code is not universal

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92. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is NOT true?

a) It is universal across all living organisms
b) It consists of triplet codons
c) It is non-overlapping
d) It codes for 20 different amino acids only

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93. In an experiment, a researcher inhibits the function of ribosomes in a cell. What will be the immediate effect on protein synthesis

a) Transcription will stop
b) mRNA will not be produced
c) Amino acids will not be linked into a polypeptide chain
d) DNA replication will be halted

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94. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesizing RNA from a DNA template during transcription?

a) DNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase
c) DNA ligase
d) Helicase

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95. In prokaryotes, how many types of RNA polymerase are involved in transcription?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

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96. What is the role of the sigma factor in prokaryotic transcription?

a) It unwinds the DNA double helix
b) It helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter
c) It adds nucleotides to the RNA strand
d) It terminates transcription

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97. What is the primary direction of nucleotide addition by both DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase?

a) 3′ to 5′
b) 5′ to 3′
c) Both 3′ to 5′ and 5′ to 3′
d) Random direction

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98. In prokaryotes, the termination of transcription is often signaled by:

a) Polyadenylation of the RNA
b) Formation of a hairpin loop in the RNA
c) Cleavage by DNA polymerase
d) Binding of the sigma factor

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99. Which of the following enzymes is an example of a ribozyme?

a) Catalase
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Amylase
d) DNA polymerase

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100. Allosteric enzymes differ from typical enzymes because they:

a) Have a single active site
b) Follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics strictly
c) Are regulated by molecules binding at a site other than the active site
d) Are always inhibited by their substrates

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101. Which of the following is true about enzyme specificity?

a) Enzymes can catalyze any reaction
b) Enzymes act on a broad range of substrates
c) Enzymes are highly specific to their substrates
d) Enzymes lose specificity at high

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102. The Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) is a measure of:

a) Enzyme efficiency
b) Substrate affinity
c) Maximum reaction rate
d) Enzyme concentration

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103. An enzyme becomes denatured when:

a) It binds to a substrate
b) Its temperature exceeds the optimum range
c) Its substrate concentration increases
d) It interacts with a coenzyme

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104. Which class of enzymes catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group?

a) Oxidoreductases
b) Transferases
c) Hydrolases
d) Lyases

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105. In the Lock and Key model of enzyme action:

a) The enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate
b) The substrate and enzyme have a rigid, complementary fit
c) The enzyme is denatured after binding
d) The substrate is an inhibitor

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106. Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity?

a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Substrate concentration
d) Color of the solution

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107. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

a) Secondary xylem
b) Secondary phloem
c) Protoxylem
d) Cortical cells

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108. Anatomically, a fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by:

a) Absence of secondary xylem
b) Position of protoxylem
c) Presence of cortex
d) Absence of secondary phloem

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109. In barley stem, vascular bundles are:

a) Open and scattered
b) Closed and scattered
c) Open and in a ring
d) Closed and radial

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110. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:

a) Primary roots
b) Prop roots
c) Lateral roots
d) Adventitious roots

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111. Choose the correct statement from the following.

a) F.Skoog and co-workers observed internodal segments gives callus in tomato stems.
b) E.Kurosawa reported the symptoms of bakane disease in rice seedling.
c) Charles Darwin and his son conducted experiments in tobacco.
d) Miller alone crystallised the cytokinins (In 1965).

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112. Compared to the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

a) Larger but have smaller sex organs
b) Larger and have large sex organs
c) Smaller and have smaller sex organs
d) Smaller but have larger sex organs

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113. In China rose the flowers are

a) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
b) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
c) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
d) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

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114. Assertion: The alternate type of phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves in which a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner.
Reason: The alternate type of phyllotaxy is seen in China rose and mustard plant.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
c) Both (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) Both (A) and (R) are false

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115. Perisperm differs from endosperm in

a) Being a haploid tissue
b) It formed from integument
c) Being a diploid tissue
d) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

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116. If egg of an organism has 20 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid cell of same organism have in pachytene (x), diakinesis (y) and anaphase-l (z)?

a) x = 40pg ; y = 40pg z = 80pg
b) x = 80pg y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
c) x = 40pg ; y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
d) x = 80pg ; y = 40pg ; z = 40pg

None

117. (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.
(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
(iv) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many statement/s is/are correct?

a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Four

None

118. Opening of stomata and counter action on apical dominance are respectively caused by:

a) Auxin and ABA
b) Cytokinin and Auxin
c) Cytokinin and Cytokinin
d) Cytokinin and ABA

None

119. During the late interphase stage of the cell cycle, a cell is observed to actively synthesize tubulin proteins while also increasing in volume. Which phase is the cell most likely in?

a) G₁-phase, as the cell prepares for DNA replication
b) S-phase, since DNA and protein synthesis occur simultaneously
c) G₂-phase, as the cell readies itself for mitotic division
d) M-phase, where spindle fiber formation and chromosome segregation take place

None

120. Study the following process which occurs in the telophase of mitosis.
(i) Breakdown of spindle fibres.
(ii) Formation of the nuclear membrane.
Identify the stage in which the opposite of the above process occurs.

a) S phase
b) Prophase
c) Interphase
d) Metaphase

None

121.
Study the above floral formula and identify the family.

a) Disc florets of Asteraceae family
b) Ray florets of Asteraceae family
c) Disc florets of Gramineae family
d) Ray florets of Gramineae family

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122. A plant species is observed to have numerous small, sessile flowers tightly packed on a common receptacle, with inferior ovary and the outermost flowers modified to mimic petals for attracting pollinators. Which of the following best describes its inflorescence type?

a) Corymb
b) Cyathium
c) Capitulum
d) Hypanthodium

None

123. The plant family where the anthers of the stamens are fused together, forming a cylindrical structure around the style, while the filaments remain free. This structural adaptation plays a crucial role in ensuring effective pollen transfer during pollination belong to?

a) Malvaceae
b) Cucurbitaceae
c) Asteraceae
d) Tiliaceae

None

124. Which of the following feature distinguish a monocot from a dicot plant?

a) Phyllotaxy
b) Venation
c) Vernation
d) Aestivation

None

125. In both gymnosperms and angiosperms, the outermost protective layer of the seed, known as the seed coat, originates from which of the following structures?

a) megaspore
b) microspore
c) megasporangium
d) microsporangium

None

126. In gymosperm, the endosperm is formed by

a) fusion of two polar nuclei
b) fertilised egg
c) fusion of one polar nucleus
d) germination of one megaspore

None

127. In humans almost same pCO₂ is found in

a) oxygenated blood and tissues
b) deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood
c) deoxygenated blood and tissue
d) alveoli and tissues

None

128. Among the following factors, how many are responsible for affecting the rate of diffusion?
i) Pressure gradient
ii) Solubility of gases
iii) Thickness of membranes
iv) Temperature
Choose the correct option.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1

None

129. Which of the following combined form inspiratory capacity?

a) Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume
b) Inspiratory volume + Residual volume reserve
c) Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
d) Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume

None

130. The fluid which reduces the friction on the lung’s surface is present

a) in between double-layered pleura
b) within single-layered pleura
c) in between cuticle layer over lungs
d) within mucous membrane surrounding the lungs

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131. Abscisic acid performs all of the functions except

a) inhibits seed germination
b) stimulates closure of stomata
c) induces seed dormancy
d) control xylem differentiation

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132. The final structure at maturity of a cell/tissue is determined by

a) type of cells
b) type of cell division
c) location of cells within the tissue
d) number of cells

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133. Arithmetic growth is linear because

a) one daughter cell remains meristematic and other differentiates and matures
b) both daughter cells remain meristematic
c) both daugther cells get matured
d) there is no differentiation observed in both daughter cells, i.e. they remain neutral

None

134. The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to replace cotton and used as a fuel is

a) Marchantia
b) Riccia
c) Sphagnum
d) Funaria

None

135. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

a) Diplontic life cycle
b) Members of kingdom-Plantae
c) Mode of nutrition
d) Multiplication by fragmentation

None

ZOOLOGY

136. HIV causes AIDS by first destroying

a) T-helper cells
b) Monocytes
c) Macrophages
d) B-cells

None

137. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

a) De-differentiation
b) Metastasis
c) High telomerase activity
d) Contact inhibition

None

138. Vaccine is taken to

a) Induce primary response
b) Induce secondary response
c) Kill pathogens
d) Stimulate T-cells

None

139. Which is a particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown?

a) Pain-killer
b) Hallucinogen
c) Depressant
d) Stimulant

None

140. Which of the following disorders show criss-cross pattern of inheritance?

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Haemophilia
d) Sickle-cell anaemia

None

141. Select the odd one out of the following options

a) IUCD
b) ICSI
c) GIFT
d) ZIFT

None

142. Which of the following is a mini-pill used in oral contraceptive

a) Mala D
b) Mala N
c) Morning after pill
d) Saheli

None

143. Which of the following are most vulnerable to extinction?

a) Birds
b) Mammals
c) Amphibians
d) Gymnosperms

None

144. Extinction of over 200 species of cichlid fish in Lake Victoria in east Africa is due to

a) Habitat loss
b) Over-exploitation
c) Alien species invasion
d) Co-extinction

None

145. Asexual spores are typically not found in

a) Ascomycetes
b) Basidiomycetes
c) Phycomycetes
d) Deuteromycetes

None

146. Statin, a blood cholesterol lowering agent is prepared using the microbe

a) Clostridium butylicum
b) Trichoderma polysporum
c) Streptococcus
d) Monascus purpureus

None

147. The supernatant of primary settling tank is called

a) Debris
b) Primary sludge
c) Effluent
d) Flocs

None

148. Which of the following provide phosphorus to plants?

a) Mychorrhiza
b) Frankia
c) Rhizobium
d) Clostridium

None

149. The number of floating ribs in the human body is

a) 6 pairs
b) 5 pairs
c) 3 pairs
d) 2 pairs

None

150. Elbow joint is an example of

a) Ball and socket joint
b) Pivot joint
c) Hinge joint
d) Gliding joint

None

151. The inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give rise to

a) Specific tissues and organs
b) Nervous tissue only
c) Heart
d) All tissues and organs

None

152. Assertion (A): The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into trophoblast and inner cell mass
Reason (R): Trophoblast is the outer layer which get attached to the endometrium

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

None

153. The foetus develops limbs and digits by the end of

a) 1^st month of pregnancy
b) 2^nd month of pregnancy
c) 3^rd month of pregnancy
d) 5^th month of pregnancy

None

154. A drop in GFR is regulated by secretion of which of the following enzymes by juxta glomerular cells?

a) Pepsin
b) Angiotensin
c) Renin
d) Adrenalin

None

155. Which mechanism acts as a check for Atrial natriuretic factor

a) Renin angiotensin mechanism
b) Counter current mechanism
c) Bohr’s effect
d) None of these

None

156. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Flatworms are endoparasites found in animals including human beings
Statement II: Some of them absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body surface

a) Both statements I and II are correct
b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

None

157. Water vascular system is a characteristic of

a) Locusta
b) Sycon
c) Asterias
d) Both B and C

None

158. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of class Mammalia

a) Internal fertilization
b) Presence of 4-chambered heart
c) Homoiothermy
d) Presence of mammary gland

None

159. According to Darwinian concept of evolution, a giraffe has a long neck because

a) Number of cervical vertebrae got increased
b) Ancestors stretched their neck to get food
c) Due to cross breeding
d) Ancestors with longer necks got more food and left more surviving offspring

None

160. Select the correct statement.

a) Bryophytes were seen in Cenozoic era
b) Permian comes before carboniferous
c) First reptiles were like shrews
d) Pouched mammals of Australia do not survived due to continental drift

None

161. Which of the following was considered as a missing link between reptiles and birds?

a) Archaeopteryx
b) Pteranodon
c) Avimimus
d) Caudipteryx

None

162. Identify the incorrectly match pair.

a) Highest normal diastolic blood pressure: 90 mm Hg
b) Highest normal systolic blood pressure: 140 mm Hg
c) Average duration of a cardiac cycle: 0.8 sec
d) Stroke volume of each ventricle: 120 ml

None

163. Apart from neuron, the neural tissue in the body is also made up of

a) Dendritic cells
b) CD4 cells
c) Neuroglial cells
d) Blood cells

None

164. How many of the following hormones are secreted by posterior pituitary gland?
GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, oxytocin and Vasopressin.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

None

165. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?

a) It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Bolivar and Rodriguez.
b) It is most widely used, versatile and easily manipulated vector
c) It has two antibiotic resistance genes, tet^R and amp^R
d) It does not have restriction site for Sal l

None

166. Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for

a) Disarming pathogen vectors
b) Transformation of plant cell
c) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
d) DNA fingerprinting

None

167. Which of the following traits is only expressed in the presence of identical allele?

a) Yellow seed
b) Inflated pod
c) Green pod
d) Green seed

None

168. In case of co-dominance, the F1 generation resembles

a) Recessive parent
b) Dominant parent
c) Both parents
d) None of the parents

None

169. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?

a) 5’- CGTATG-3’ 3’- CGAATG-5’
b) 5’-GAATTC-3’ 3’-CTTAAG-5’
c) 5’-GACTAC-3’ 3’-CTTAAG-5’
d) 5’-CGAATG-3’ 3’-GCATAC-5’

None

170. In the given figure, if T4 is equivalent to 1000J, what is the value of T1?

a) 1000/10 J
b) 10,000J
c) 1000/10X4 J
d) 1000000J

None

171. The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to the following factors, except:

a) Warm and moist environment
b) Detritus rich in lignin and chitin
c) Detritus rich in sugars
d) Presence of aerobic soil microbes

None

172. Which ecosystem has maximum biomass?

a) Pond ecosystem
b) Lake ecosystem
c) Forest ecosystem
d) Grassland ecosystem

None

173. The impact of immigration on population density:

a) Negative
b) Both positive and negative
c) Positive
d) Neutralised by natality

None

174. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to predation?

a) Helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
b) It might lead to extinction of species
c) Both interacting species are negatively impacted
d) It is necessitated by nature to maintain ecological balance

None

175. What parameters are used for tiger census in national parks and sanctuaries?

a) Pug marks
b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
c) Faecal pellets
d) Headcounts

None

176. Bt toxin do not harm

a) Tobacco budworm
b) Armyworm
c) Beetles
d) Bacillus

None

177. Transgenic animals are those which have

a) Foreign DNA in some of its cells
b) Foreign RNA in all of its cells
c) Foreign DNA in all of its cells
d) DNA and RNA in both the cells

None

178. Which of the following cannot be a GMO?

a) Plant
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Viruses

None

179. RNAi inhibits

a) Transcription of all genes
b) DNA replication
c) Translation of specific mRNAs
d) Neither transcription or translation of specific genes

None

180. Which is not true about PCR?

a) Only RNA can be used as a primer
b) Used to detect mutation in genes
c) Can amplify very small amount of DNA
d) Can be used to detect HIV in suspects

None

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