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Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 2 (30.08.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
PHYSICS
2. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f (f is the focal length). The image will be at,
1) 5f 2) −1.5f3) 3f4) −3f
1) 180° 2) 0°3) Equal to angle of incidence 4) 90°
1) 6°2) 83) 10°4) 4°
1) 20°2) 2°3) 30°4) 3°
1) 5 cm2) 10 cm3) 8 cm4) 4 cm
1) 1.52) 1.663) 1.33 4) 3
1) 75°2) 90°3) 105°4) 120°
1) 5.25cm2) 21.0cm3) 10.5cm 4) 42cm
1) its angular velocity2) rotating air3) its inertia 4) momentum
1) 102) 203) 10√2 4) 2√10
1) 100 m 2) 200 m3) 150 m 4) 125 m
1) 32 N2) 35 N3) 20 N4) 37 N
1) 39 N 2) 25 N3) 12 N 4) 35 N
1) 2 m/s22) 7 m/s23) 6 m/s24) 0
1) 0 m/s2) 3.2 m/s3) 4 m/s4) 8 m/s
1) fs R 2) -fs R3) 0 4) cannot be determined
1) 72 KV2) 58 KV3) 7.2 KV4) 5.8 KV
1) increases2) Decreases3) remains the same4) Becomes zero
1) 9×4 V 2) 18×104 V3) 36×104 V 4) 36×10-4 V
Deselect Answer
1) 120 V 2) Zero3) 12 V4) 1200 V
1) (a) and (b) only2) (a), (b) and (d) only3) (a), (b) and (c) only 4) (b) and (c) only
1) 2.452) 3.453) 4.25 4) 5.25
1). mg(1+π) 2). mg(1-π)3). mg/π 4). None of these
1) 1 km 2) 2 km3) 3 km4) 4 km
1) Decreases 2) Increases3) May increase or decrease 4) Conserved
1) 12) 2 3) 1/24) 2/1
1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A3) If A is true but R is false4) If A is false but R is true
1) R/42) R/2 3) R/64) 4R
1) 16:92) 16:273) 1:4 4) 4:1
1) – 2%2) + 2%3) – 1% 4) + 1%
1) 4:2√22) 1: 2 3) 2:14) 8:9
1) 5/22) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/2
CHEMISTRY
1) 2, 02) 2,13) 24) 1
1) Infrared2) Visible3) Microwaves4) Ultra Violet
1) 52) 43) 1 4) 3
1) 8 2) 103) 184) 32
1) dxy, dyz2) dyz,dx2– y23) dz2, dx2-y2 4) dz2, dzx
1) 22) 63) 104) 14
1) 02) 13) 2 4) 3
1) P2 > P3 > P1 2) P3 > P1 > P23) P2 > P1 > P34) P1 > P2 > P3
1) 336 mm of Hg 2) 350 mm of Hg3) 160 mm of Hg4) 168 mm of Hg
1) 0.40K 2) 0.60K3) 0.20K4) 0.80K
1) 103oC2) 101oC3) 100oC4) 102oC
1) Al2(SO4)32) K2SO43) KCl 4) C2H12O6
1) 171 2) 205.23) 5704) 150
1) 0.242) 0.33) 0.754) 0.4
1) 12.9 g2) 9.6 g3) 8.5 g4) 6.7 g
1) 2.24 L2) 1.12 L3) 0.84 L 4) 0.56 L
1) HF2) H2F23) H3F34) H4F4
1) 0.1 mole2) 0.2 mole3) 0.5 mole4) 0.3 mole
1) 28 2) 703) 35 4) 50
77. 1 litre of mixture of CO and CO2is passed through red hot charcoal in tube. The new volume becomes 1.4 litre. Find out % composition of mixture by volume. All measurements are made at same P and T.1) 50% CO, 50% CO22) 40% CO, 60% CO23) 60% CO, 40% CO24) 10% CO, 90% CO2 \Deselect Answer
78. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is
1) 10 2) 203) 30 4) 40
79. When 22.4L of H2( g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl2 (g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to
1) 2 moles2) 0.5 moles3) 1.5 moles4) 1 mole
80. Given below are two statements:Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting point due to hydrogen bonding.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true4) Statement I is false but Statement II is trueDeselect Answer
81. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
1) Phenol 2) aniline 3) cyclohexane4) Ethene
82. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?Deselect Answer
83. Which of the following conformation is most stable?Deselect Answer
84. A compound which decomposes before its boiling point can be purified by the method of1) simple distillation2) fractional distillation3) distillation under reduced pressure4) steam distillation.Deselect Answer
85. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen present is estimated as
1) N2 2) NO3) NH3 4) NO2
86. The number of sigma and pi-bonds present in 1, 3-butadiene are respectively
1) 9 and 22) 8 and 2 3) 9 and 34) 9 and 1
87. The correct stability order for the following species is :1) (II)> (IV)> (I)> (III)2) (I)> (III)> (II) >(IV)3) (I) >(II) >(III)> (IV)4) (II) > (I)> (IV) >(III)Deselect Answer
88. The I.U.P.A.C. name of1) 3–Methyl cyclohexene2) 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.3) 6–methyl cyclohexene4) 1–methyl cyclohex5–eneDeselect Answer
89. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?
1) Sulphur compound2) Quinoline3) Both4) None
90. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is
1) P > Q > R > S 2) Q > R > S > P3) S > Q > R > P 4) S > R > Q > P
BOTANY
91. Backbone of DNA is made of1) Nitrogen base, phosphate and deoxyribose sugar 2) Alternate nitrogen base and phosphate 3) Alternate nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar 4) Alternate phosphate and deoxyribose sugar
92. Which of the following statements about histones is wrong?1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules. 2) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine. 3) Histones carry a positive charge in their side chains. 4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
93. If the distance between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs is 6.6 × 10⁹, then the length of DNA is approximately1) 1.1 meters 3) 3.4 meters 2) 2.2 meters 4) 6.6 meters
94. Taylor’s experiment on semi-conservative mode of chromosome replication was done on1) Vicia faba 2) E. coli 3) Drosophila 4) Tobacco
95. Association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates1) DNA is condensed into chromatin Fiber 2) DNA is denatured 3) Transcription is occurring 4) Translation is occurring
96. The final proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of:1) Griffith 2) Hershey and Chase3) Watson and Crick 4) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
97. The transforming principle in Griffith’s experiment was identified as DNA by:a) Hershey and Chase b) Watson and Crick c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty d) Meselson and Stahl
98. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment using bacteriophages, ³²P was used to label:1) Proteins 2) DNA 3) RNA 4) Lipids
99. The semi-conservative model of DNA replication was demonstrated by:1) Messelson and Stahl 2) Hershey and Chase 3) Watson and Crick 4) Franklin and Wilkins
100. Solenoid model of chromatin packaging represents:1) 10 nm “beads-on-string” fibre 2) 30 nm chromatin fibre 3) 300 nm looped domains 4) 700 nm chromatid
102. Which of the following is not true for heterochromatin?1) Densely packed2) Transcriptionally inactive 3) Stains light 4) Found at centromeres and telomeres
103. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty concluded DNA was the genetic material because:1) DNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, but protein- and RNA digesting enzymes did not 2) RNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not3) Protein-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not 4) Both DNA and protein were equally effective
104 If Hershey and Chase had used radioactive hydrogen to label nucleotides in phage DNA, after infection the radioactivity would be1) Found only in protein coat 2) Found only inside bacteria 3) Found in both coat and bacteria equally 4) Lost after blending
105. Semi-conservative replication proved that:1) Each daughter DNA has one new and one parental strand 2) Both daughter DNAs have two parental strands 3) Both daughter DNAs have two new strands 4) DNA replication is error-free
106. The average length of DNA per nucleosome repeat is about:1) 146 bp 2) 160 bp 3) 200 bp 4) 300 bp
107. Assertion (A): Histone proteins are positively charged. Reason (R): They are rich in basic amino acids like lysine and arginine.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
108. Assertion (A): Nucleosomes are the fundamental unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes. Reason (R): Each nucleosome core contains DNA wrapped around a tetramer of histone H1.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) Both A and R are false
109. In a eukaryotic cell, the linker histone H1 is absent due to a mutation. What would be the most likely consequence for chromatin structure?1) Complete loss of nucleosome formation 2) Looser chromatin compaction, affecting higher-order structure 3) No effect on chromatin structure 4) Increased DNA methylation and gene silencing
110. Assertion (A): In semiconservative DNA replication, after two generations in a ¹⁴N medium starting from fully ¹⁵N-labeled DNA, half of the DNA molecules will have intermediate density. Reason (R): Each round of semiconservative replication produces DNA molecules with one parental (¹⁵N) and one newly synthesized (¹⁴N) strand.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
111. Assertion (A): DNA replication on the lagging strand is discontinuous, resulting in Okazaki fragments. Reason (R): The lagging strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction, opposite to the movement of the replication fork, requiring multiple RNA primers.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
112. Why are Okazaki fragments formed during DNA replication?1) Because DNA polymerase can only synthesize in the 3’ to 5’ direction 2) Because the leading strand is synthesized faster than the lagging strand 3) Because the lagging strand is synthesized in short segments due to its 5’ to 3’ template orientation 4) Because RNA primers are not required for the leading strand
113. What feature of DNA polymerase contributes to the high fidelity of DNA replication?1) 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity 2) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity3) Ability to bind RNA primers 4) Interaction with single-strand binding proteins
114. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial chromosome.1) They are metacentric chromosome. 2) The centromere is present at the centre. 3) During anaphase, these chromosomes are divided into two equal arms. 4) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.Deselect Answer
115. Mannitol is stored food in:1) Porphyra 2) Fucus 3) Gracilaria 4) CharaDeselect Answer
ZOOLOGY
136. According to MTP (Amendment) Act 2017, pregnancy may be terminated on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner within1) 12 weeks 2) 24 weeks 3) Beyond 24 weeks 4) Second trimester
137. Which of the following STD is not completely curable?1) Gonorrhoea 2) Syphilis 3) Genital herpes 4) Genital warts
138. Which of the following IUDs will prevent ovulation?1) Cu7 2) LNG-20 3) Lippes loop 4) Multiload 375
139. The most widely used contraceptive is1) Condom 2) Hormone injection 3) Coitus interruptus 4) IUCD
140. Infertile couples can be assisted to have children through which technique?1) PID 2) VD 3) IUD 4) ART
141. How many of the following are indicators of improved reproductive health of society? (a) More couples with larger families (b) Better detection and cure of STIs (c) Better post-natal care (d) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries (e) Increased IMRChoose the correct option from the following1) One 3) Four 2) Three 4) Five
142. Read the following statements carefully: Statement I: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural, and social. Statement II: USA was the first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at the national level towards attaining a reproductively healthy society Choose the option which correctly describes the above-given statements:1) Both statements I and Il are correct. 2) Both statements | and Il are incorrect. 3) Only statement I is correct. 4) Only statement Il is correct
143. Match the following:1) A−(iii),B −(i),C−(iv),D−(ii) 2) A−(i),B−(iii),C−(ii),D − (iv) 3) A−(iv),B−(iii),C−(i),D−(ii) 4) A−(ii),B−(iv),C −(i),D −(iii)
144. Assertion(A): In intrauterine transfer (IUT) embryos, more than 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube. Reason(R): IUT has poor success rate.1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
145. Choose the right one among the statements given below:1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself. 2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus. 3) lUDs suppress gametogenesis. 4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
146. Emergency pills should be used after 72 hours of1) Coitus 2) Ovulation 3) Menstruation 4) Gastrulation
147. Select the odd one out from the following STDs1) Chlamydia 2) Genital herpes 3) Hepatitis-B 4) Trichomoniasis
148. The method of injecting sperm inside the cytoplasm of an ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called1) GIFT 2) ICSI 3) ET 4) ZIFT
149. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:1) Most of the major organ systems are formed 2) The body is covered with fine hair 3) Movement of the foetus 4) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
150. The function of oral contraceptive pills in birth control is1) To inhibit sperm mobility 2) To inhibit ovulation 3) To inhibit oogenesis 4) To inhibit implantation
151. Transfer of donor’s semen into the uterus of female is called1) IUI 2) IUT 3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
152. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
153. Chances of ovulation is very low during intense lactation because1) Suppression of gonadotropins 2) Increase secretion of gonadotropins 3) Suppression of fertilization 4) Increase secretion of oxytocin
154. Select the incorrect pair from the following1) Periodic abstinence – Natural contraceptive 2) Progestesert – Hormone releasing IUD 3) Saheli – Steroidal pills 4) Embryo more than 8 blastomeres – IUT
155. Which of the following statements are correct regarding oral contraceptive pills (i) They inhibit ovulation and implantation(ii) They alter the quality of fallopian mucus to prevent fertilization (iii) They inhibit sperm mobility1) (i) only 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
156. Misuse of amniocentesis can lead to1) STD 2) MTP 3) RTI 4) ART
157. In which technique of ART, fertilization takes place in fallopian tube?1) GIFT and ZIFT 2) ZIFT and AI 3) GIFT and AI 4) ZIFT and IUT
158. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT procedure1) Ova collected from female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation in the recipient 2) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube of recipient 3) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient 4) Ova is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient
159. In rDNA technology, primers are1) Chemically synthesised, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules 2) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA 3) Specific sequences present on rDNA 4) Required to identify transformants from non-transformants
160. Select the odd one out.1) Denaturation, annealing, extension 2) Recognition site, Origin of replication, Selectable marker 3) Exonuclease, Ligases, Polymerase 4) Electrophoresis, ELISA, bioreactor
161. pBR322, commonly used vector is1) Original bacterial plasmid 2) Original yeast plasmid 3) Artificial bacterial plasmid 4) Viral vector
162. Sequence of vector mediated gene transfer involves1) Treatment with divalent cations—> placing on ice —> heat shock —> incubation of cells with rDNA on ice 2) Treatment with calcium chloride —> pores made by electrical impulse —> DNA molecules incorporated into cells3) DNA coated with gold pellet —> embedded on plastic disc —> bombarded with high velocity to target cell 4) Micropipette filled with DNA—> inserted into nucleus of cell—> pressure applied—>DNA injected into cells
163. Which of the following is correctly matched?1) Separation of raw materials– Culturing 2) Primer extension in PCR – Reverse transcriptase 3) dNTPs – Deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates 4) Bacteriophage– Cloning vector
164. Regarding Sparged stirred tank bioreactor, select the correct statements. i. Sparger is responsible for proper aeration ii. Surface area for oxygen is increasediii. Air inlet is at the bottom, materials can be introduced through itiv. Fermentation process is anaerobic1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I and IV
165. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is a1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
166. Identify A and B from the given diagram.1) Pvu I and Sal I 2) Bam HI and Sal I 3) Bam HI and Pst I 4) Pvu II and Pst I
167. When linear and circular DNA are cut at four recognition sites, number of fragments produced are1) 3 and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 5 and 4 4) 3 and 3
168. Assertion: Continuous culturing maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log or exponential phase Reason: Continuous culturing of cells involve passing out of medium from one side and addition of fresh medium from the other side1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2) is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
169. Which of the following is endonuclease?1) Protease 2) Hind III 3) RNase 4) DNase I
170. Polyethylene glycol method is used for/as1) Gene transfer without a vector 2) Isolation of DNA 3) Composition of bioreactor 4) Production of plasmids
171. Statement I: Commonly used vector contains multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease Statement II: Presence of multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease results in multiple fragments1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 3) Both Statement I and II are correct 4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
172. Who is the father of Indian Biotechnology?1) Birbal Sahni 2) Prof VL Chopra 3) Prof AK Chopra 4) Dr Lalji Singh
173. Match the following:1) 1− iv,2− ii,3− i,4− iii 2) 1− iii,2− i,3− ii,4− iv 3) 1− iv,2− iv,3− iii,4− i 4) 1− ii,2− iv,3− i,4− iii
174. EFB stands for1) European Federation for Biology 2) Europe Federation for Biotechnology 3) European Federation of Biotechnology 4) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology
175. Assertion: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a divalent cation Reason: Divalent cations decrease the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation A 2) A is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
176. The minimum heat range in PCR is observed in which step?1) Denaturation 2) Extension 3) Annealing 4) Elongation
177. Select the correct option. 1. rDNA is formed by joining together DNA from two different sources. 2. Endonuclease remove nucleotides from the end of DNA. 3. Sticky ends are named so because they form hydrogen bond with their complementary cut counter parts1) 1 only 2) 1 and 2 3) 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
178. Foreign DNA was inserted into a cloning vector at the ampicillin resistance gene. Non-recombinants would survive on medium containing:1) Both tetracycline and ampicillin 2) Neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 3) Ampicillin but not tetracycline 4) Tetracycline but not ampicillin
179. Which of the following is not tool for rDNA technology?1) Restriction enzyme 2) DNA fingerprinting 3) Cloning vector 4) PCR
180. A mixture contains DNA fragments p,q,r,s with differing sizes, where, p + q = r, p > q, s > r was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from anode to cathode sides of the gel would be1) q, r, p, s 2) r, p, q, s 3) q, p, r, s 4) s, r, p, q