JEE FULL TEST (02.08.2025)

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Welcome to your JEE FULL TEST (02.08.2025)

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 108 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

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2. A circular plate lies in the XY-plane. The X and Y axes lie in the plane of the plate and are perpendicular to each other, while the Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the plate (i.e., the axis of the disc). If the moments of inertia of the plate about the X-axis and Y-axis are 25 kg·m² and 35 kg·m², respectively, then what is the moment of inertia of the plate about the Z-axis (in kg·m²)?

1. 70
2. 60
3. 50
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3. A motor supplies a constant power of 1500 watts to rotate a solid cylindrical drum. The torque applied by the motor is measured to be 30 N·m. Assuming the torque remains constant, what is the angular acceleration of the drum (in rad/s²) at the instant when the drum starts from rest?

1. 50 rad/sec
2. 20 rad/sec
3. 2 rad/sec
4. 5 rad/sec

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4. A heavy object is spinning steadily around a fixed axis. To bring it to rest efficiently, which of the following approaches is most effective?

1. pressure at the turning point.
2. upward force at the turning point.
3. downward force at the free end.
4. torque in opposite direction

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5. A thin circular disc is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. If its translational kinetic energy is given to be E, what will be its total kinetic energy?

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6. Five identical circular metal disks, each having radius R and mass M, are arranged in the shape of a cross — one disk is placed at the origin, and the remaining four are centered directly above, below, left, and right of it, each at a vertical or horizontal distance of 2R. Using the origin as the reference point, what is the y-coordinate of the Center of mass of this five-disk system?

1. 2R
2. R
3. -R
4. 0

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7. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ρ and radius R about its diameter?

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8. A rotating drum has a moment of inertia of 2.5×10² kgm²and spins with a constant angular velocity of 5.2 rad/s. A braking system applies a constant opposing torque of 5×102 Nm to slow it down. How much time will it take for the drum to come to a complete stop?

1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 1.5 s
4. 2.6 s

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9. A heavy flywheel initially rotating at an angular speed of 6 rad/s is brought to rest in 3 seconds by a constant opposing torque of 360 N\m. What is the moment of inertia of the flywheel?

1. 90 kgm²2. 120 kgm²3. 180 kgm²
4. 240 kgm²

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10. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved

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11. What is the radius of gyration of a uniform circular disc about a tangent drawn in the plane of the disc?

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12. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of level corresponding to n=4 is

1. -0.54 eV
2. -0.65 eV
3. -0.85 eV
4. -1.5 eV

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13. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 6.0×10¹⁴ s^-1. The kinetic energy of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency v=1.0×10¹⁵ s^-1 hits the metal is

1. 1.988×10^-19 J
2. 2.65×10^-19 J
3. 1.65×10^-19 J
4. -19.36×10^-19 J

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14. The Energy of a photon emitted during a transition from n=3 to n=1 state in the hydrogen atom is

1. -4.58×10^-19 J
2. -3.0×10^-19 J
3. -16.32×10^-19 J
4. Photoelectric emission will not occur

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15. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron on atom within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?

1. 5.79×10⁶ ms^-12. 2.2×10⁶ms^-1
3. 4.2×10³ ms^-1
4. 9.1×10⁶ ms^-1

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16. A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic deep red light of wavelength 6626 Å. The number of photon emitted per second is

1. 7.18×10¹⁹ s^-12. 8.3×10¹⁹ s^-13. 3.77×10¹⁹ s^-1
4. 1.65×10¹⁹ s^-1

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17. The number of spectral lines that can be observed when electrons in the 7^th shell in different hydrogen atoms return to the 2^nd shell is

1. 21
2. 15
3. 5
4. 6

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18. Which of the following transition will have shortest wavelength in hydrogen atom?

1. n₂=5 to n₁=1
2. n₂=3 to n₁=1
3. n₂=5 to n₁=2
4. n₂=6 to n₁=2

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19. A difference of 4.141 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from higher energy state to lower energy state?

1. 560 THz
2.1000 THz
3. 100 THz
4. 5600 Thz

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20. How much energy is required to ionize a hydrogen atom if the electron occupies orbit?

1. 0.54 J
2. 13.6 J
3. 8.64×10^-20 J
4. 2.18×10^-18 J

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21. The momentum of a photon of energy 3 MeV is

1. 1.6×10^-21 kg m s^-1
2. 4.8×10^-13 kg m s^-1
3. 5.3×10^-24 kg m s^-1
4. 1.44×10^-5 kg m s^-1

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22. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of a particle varies with acceleration potential V as

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23. In which transition of hydrogen atom have same wavelength as in Balmer series transition of He⁺ ion (n=6 to n=2 )?

1. 4 to 2
2. 3 to 1
3. 2 to 1
4. 4 to 1

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24. A spaceship of mass 2000 kg accelerates vertically with acceleration 9 ms^-2. An astronaut inside it has a mass of 70 kg. The amount of change in his weight inside the ship when it is in motion is? (Take g=9.8 ms^-2)

1. 1029 N
2. 686 N
3. 343 N
4. 0 N

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25. A photon travels horizontally with velocity c towards a point P. At the same time, an electron with kinetic energy T moves in a direction opposite to that of the photon. The velocity of the photon as seen from the electron is

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26. The slope of the time-displacement graph represents

1. velocity
2. speed
3. per velocity
4. per speed

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27. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure.
Statement I: B lives closer to the school than A
Statement II: A takes lesser time to reach home
Statement III: B travels faster than A

Choose the correct option:
1. I, II and III are all true
2. Only I and II are false
3. Only II is true
4. Only II and III are true

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28. If the magnitude of angular momentum of a particle at a distance of 400 cm from the axis of rotation is 100 kgm² s^-1. The magnitude of linear momentum p of the particle (in kg ms^-1) when the angle between the position vector and momentum vector is 60º is

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1. ab and 0
2. 0 and ab
3. both 0
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30. A body travels a distance of 15 m towards east with a speed of 30 m/s, then travels a distance of 8 m towards north with a speed of 16 m/s. Its average velocity is

1. 17 m/s
2. 23 m/s
3. 7 m/s
4. 21 m/sDeselect Answer

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31. If the angle between two displacements of magnitudes 1 each is 180º, then the value of their dot product is

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32. If the velocity of a particle as a function of time is given by

. At what value of time (in seconds) will its acceleration be 2 m/s²?

1. 6 s
2. 4 s
3. 2 s
4. 8 s

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33. Two forces P and Q are oriented such that the angle between them is 180º. The magnitude of their resultant is

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34. An object moves with speeds v₁, v₂ and v₃along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3AB, then average speed of the object will be:

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35. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the ground starts climbing the rope hand over up to a height l. From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the time he is hanging at rest at a height l, how much work done on the man by the rope?

1. 0
2. Mgl
3. –Mgl
4. It depends on how fast the man goes up.

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36. A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 20 N be acted on the body so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 40 J after moving 4m

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 120°

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37. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300 % then percentage change in momentum will be

1. 100%
2.150%
3.265%
4. 73.2%

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38. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v₀. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v₀is (Take g = 10 m s^-2)

1. 28 m s^-1
2. 10 ms^-1
3. 14 m s^-1 4. 20 m s^-1

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39. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = a x^3/2, where a = 5 m/s². What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m.

1. 25 J
2. 50 J
3. 75 J
4. 40 J

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40. If a body falls freely under gravity from rest, what fraction of its initial potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy when it has fallen to half of its initial height?

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41. Kinetic energy, with any reference, must be

1. negative
2. zero
3. positive
4. Both (1) and (3)

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42. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient of restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is

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43. Maximum energy transfer for an elastic collision will occur if one body is at rest when

1. m₁ = m₂
2. m₁ = 2m₂3. m₁ >> m₂
4. m₂ >> m₁

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44. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep, meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in figure. Their velocities and time to reach the ground are and respectively, then,

Which of the above relation(s) is/are correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)

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45. A spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored is E. If the spring is stretches by 20 cm, the potential energy store will be

1. 2E
2. 4E
3. 8E
4. 16E

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CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following oxide is most acidic ?

1. BeO
2.MgO
3.BaO
4.CaODeselect Answer

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47. Which of the following order is wrong?

1. Li⁺ < Na ⁺ < K⁺ < Cs ⁺ (ionic radius)
2. Li < B < Be < N (Ionization enthalpy)
3. Al₂O₃ < Mg₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
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48. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

1. Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
2. Both A and B are alkali metals
3. A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
4. B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metalsDeselect Answer

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49. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions ?

1. Ga, In, Tl
2. N, O, F
3. Na, Mg, Al
4. V, Cr, Mn

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50. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65)

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51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

1. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
2. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3. Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size)
4. B <C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

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52. The elements having greatest difference between its first and second ionization enthalpy is :

1. Ca
2. K
3. Sc
4. Ba

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53. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s

d > f

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54. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹ 2. ns² np³3. ns² np⁴
4. ns² np ^1-6

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55. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C

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56. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2

A. 37 I. S block
B. 60 II. P block
C. 53 III. D block
D. 78 IV. F block

1. A-I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A-I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A-II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III

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57. Paulings electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting

1. Polarity of the molecules
2. Position in the emf series
3. Coordination in numbers
4. Dipole moments

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58. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and Be
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and Al

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59. The volume of 80% sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) by weight (density = 1.80gmL^-1) required to prepare 1L of 0.2M H₂SO₄is

1. 14.7 mL
2. 29.4 mL
3. 6.8 mL
4. 13.60 mL

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60. Calculate the amount of oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄.2H₂O) required to obtain 250 mL og semimolar solution.

1. 15.75 g
2. 1.575 g
3. 157.5 g
4. None of these

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61. 02 x 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is

1. 0.001 M
2. 0.01 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M

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62. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute solution of the gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant for the gas at 298 K is 100 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in one litre of water is

1. 0.555
2. 5.55
3. 0.0555
4. 55.5

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63. Nalorphene (C₁₉H₂₁NO₃) similar to morphine, is used to combat withdrawal symptoms in narcotic users. Dose to nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 x 10-3 m aqueous solution required for the above dose is?

1. 3.2 g
2. 0.2 g
3. 5.1 g
4. 7.3 g

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64. The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A,B,C) in water are 145, 2 x 10^-5 and 35 kbar respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order

1. B > A > C
2. B > C > A
3. A > C > B
4. A > B > C

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65. The molality of 648 g of pure water is

1. 36 m
2. 55.5 m
3. 3.6 m
4. 5.55 in

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66. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) of moles of solute/Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) of moles of component/Moles of the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component/Mass of solution = (Z)

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67. How many Na+ ions are present in 100mL of 0.25M of NaCl solution?

1. 0.025 x 10²³
2. 1.505 x 10²²
3. 15 x 10²² 4. 2.5 x 10²³

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68. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100mL water at 298K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5atm and KH = 1.4 x 10-3 mol/L/atm?

1. 22.4 mg
2. 22.4 g
3. 2.24 g
4. 2.24 mg

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69. 1g of H₂ has same number of molecules as in :

1. 14 g of N₂ 2. 18g of H₂O
3. 16g of CO
4. 44g of CO₂

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70. Given that the abundance of isotopes Fe⁵⁴ , Fe⁵⁶ , Fe⁵⁷ , are 5% , 90%, 5% respectively. The atomic mass of Fe is

1. 55.75
2. 55.95
3. 55.85
4. 56.05

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71. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Mg₃(PO₄)₂ will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

1. 0.02
2. 3.125 x 10^-2
3. 1.25 x 10^-2
4. 2.5 x 10^-2

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72. How many number of molecules and atoms respectively are present in 2.8 L of a diatomic gas at STP ?

1. 023 x 10²³, 7.5 x 10²³
2. 023 x 10²³, 15 x 10²²
3. 5 x 10²², 15 x 10²²
4. 15 x 10²², 7.5 x 10²³

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73. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N₃^–ion is

1. 2.1 N_A
2. 4.2 N_A3. 1.6 N_A
4. 3.2 N_A

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74. The number of Oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO₂is

1. 1.2 x 10²³
2. 6 x 10²²3. 6 x 10²³
4. 12 x 10²³

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75. The percentage of C, H, and N in an organic compound are 40% , 13.3 % and 46.7% respectively then the empirical formula is

1. C₃H₁₃N₃2. CH₂N
3. CH₄N
4. CH₆N

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76. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5 % by mass ( atomic mass of Se = 78.4 amu). Then, the minimum molecular mass of enzyme which contains 2 Se atoms is

1. 1.568 x 10⁴
2. 1.568 x 10⁷3. 3.136 x 10⁴4. 3.136 x 10³

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77. 011 x 10²²molecules are removed from a vessel containing 1500 cc of Nitrogen at STP. How many moles are remaining ?

1. 0.025
2. 0.017
3. 0.5
4. 1

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78. Which has maximum no. of molecules ?

1. 7g N₂
2. 2g H₂
3. 16g NO₂ 4. 16g O₂

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79. The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and paranitrophenols is

1. Steam distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallisation

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80. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO, while testing for halogens. By doing so, it:

1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN formed
2. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. Increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. Increases the concentration of NO ions

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81. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect:

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Chlorine
4. All of these

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82. The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

1. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
2. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
3. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
4. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

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83. When n-butane is treated with chlorine, how many monochloro products are formed?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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84. Glycerine can be purified by

1. vacuum distillation
2. simple distillation
3. steam distillation
4. fractional distillation.

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85. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in

1. NH₂CONHNH₂.HCl
2. NH₂NH₂.HCl
3. NH₂CONH₂
4. C₆H₅NHNH₂. HCl

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86. Inductive effect involves

1. displacement of σ-electrons resulting in polarisation
2. displacement of π-electrons resulting in polarisation
3. delocalisation of σ-electrons
4. delocalisation of π-electrons.

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87. Point out the incorrect statement about resonance?

1. Resonance structures should have equal energy.
2. In resonance structures, the constituent atoms must be in the same position.
3. In resonance structures, there should not be same number of electron pairs.
4. Resonance structures should differ only in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.

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88. How many sigma and pi bond are present in benzaldehyde?

1. 19σ and 4π bond
2. 20σ and 3π bond
3. 18σ and 3π bond
4. 20σ and 4π bond

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89. IUPAC name of the compound

1. 2,3-dimethylheptane
2. 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
3. 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
4. 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane.

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90. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

1. CH₃-CHCI-COOH
2. H-C≡C – Cl
3. CICH = CHCI
4. CICH₂– CH₂CI

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MATHEMATICS

(Attempt 25 out of 30 questions)

91. Let R₁ and R₂ be two relations defined on R by a R₁b ⇔ ab ≥ 0 and aR₂b ⇔ a ≥ b. Then,

A) R₁ is an equivalence relation but not R₂
B) R₂ is an equivalence relation but not R₁
C) both R₁ and R₂ are equivalence relations
D) neither R₁ nor R₂are equivalence relations

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

92. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and B={3,6,7,9}. Then the number of elements in the set {C ⊆ A : C ∩ B ≠ ϕ} is

A) 112
B) 126
C) 256
D) 240

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

93. A=Set of all triangles
B=Set of all right triangles.
Then, A-B=?

A) Set of all equilateral triangles
B) Set of all triangles which have all three angles different
C) Set of all isosceles triangles
D) Set of all triangles which do not have one right angles

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

94. A set S contains 3 elements, the number of which of the following sets is 256

A) S
B) P(S)
C) P(P(S))
D) P(P(P(S)))

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

95. Let f : Q → Q be a function given by f (x) + x², then f^-1 9=

A) {3}
B) f
C) {-3,3}
D) {-3}

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

96. The domain of the function is

A) (-∞,0]
B) [0, ∞)
C) R
D) R-{0}

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

97.

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

98. A function from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by

A) one-one but not onto
B) onto but not one-one
C) neither one-one nor onto
D) one-one and onto

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

99. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. Then the number of subsets of containing exactly two elements is

A) 45
B) 20
C) 35
D) 40

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

100. All the employees of Company X were appraised at the year end. 40% of the employees got a promotion, 50% of the employees got a salry hike and 30% of the employees neither got a promotion nor got a salary hike. If there were 40 employees who got both the promotion and the salary hike, what was the number of employees in the company.

A) 100
B) 120
C) 150
D) 200

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

101. If A={-1,1,2}, then n {A×A×A}=

A) 9
B) 16
C) 27
D) 3

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

102. If A={a,b}, B={c,d}, C={d,e}, then {(a,c),(a,d),(a,e),(b,c),(b,c),(b,d),(b,e)} is equal to

A) A∩(B∪C)
B) A×(B∪C)
C) A∪(B∩C)
D) A×(B∩C)

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

103.

A) (0,1)
B) [0,1]
C) [0,1)
D) (0,1]Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

104. The value of λ for which the system of equations 2x-y+2z=2, x-2y+z=-4, x+y+λz=4 has no solution is

A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

105. Value of k, for which is a singular matrix is

A) +4
B) -4
C) ±4
D) 0Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

106. Given that A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A|=-4, then |adjA| is equal to

A) -4
B) 4
C) -16
D) 16Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

107. The matrix is a

A) identity matrix
B) symmetric matrix
C) skew symmetric matrix
D) none of theseDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

108.

A) -6,-12,-18
B) -6,-4,-9
C) -6,4,9
D)-6,12,18Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

109. If , then for all natural numbers n, Aⁿ is equal to

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

110. The system of equations, x+y+z=1, 3x+6y+z=8, ax+2y+3z=1 has a unique solution for

A) a not equal to 0
B) all integral a
C) all rational a
D) all real aDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

111. The system of equations, +y+z=6, x+2y+3z=14, x+3y+5z=20 has

A) infinitely many solutions
B) a unique solution
C) only finitely many solutions
D) no solutionDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

112. If a square matrix A has two identical rows or columns, then detA is:

A) 0
B) -1
C) 1
D) none of theseDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

113. For a non-trivial solution |A| is

A) |A|>0
B) |A|<0
C) |A|=0
D) |A|≠0Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

114. Solve the system of equations,
x+y+z=6
2x+3y-z=5
6x-2y-3z=-7

A) x=1, y=3, z=2
B) x=3, y=2, z=1
C) x=1, y=2, z=3
D) x=2, y=3, z=1Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

115. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

116. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

117. Which of the following property of matrix multiplication is correct:

A) multiplication is not commutative in general
B) multiplication is associative
C) multiplication is distributive over addition
D) All of the mentioned

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

118.

A) 12
B) 14
C) 19
D) 10Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

119.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 2
D) 4Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

120. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

Drawing Test (For B. Architecture only)

Attempt any two.

Q1. Draw a street scene in two-point perspective showing the following elements:

A row of multistoried buildings on both sides
A moving bus turning into the street
Pedestrians walking with umbrellas (it’s raining)
Overhead street lamps
Reflections in puddles on the wet road

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

Q2. Draw the interior of a modern library in one-point perspective. Your drawing must include:

Rows of bookshelves aligned on both sides
A central aisle with a few students reading or walking
A glass wall at the far end with natural light coming in
Tables and chairs arranged near the windows
Decorative ceiling lights and plants for ambience

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

Q3. Imagine and draw a scene from a local cultural festival or fair, including:

People wearing traditional attire
A decorated stage where performances are happening
Food stalls, balloons, and children playing
Background elements like trees, hills, or monuments

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D

None

←NEET FULL TEST 1 (02.08.2025)

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