1. The test is of 2 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

1. A square of wire of side 3 cm is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is

(a) 4 cm²
(b) 6 cm²
(c) 16 cm²
(d) 36 cm²

2. The light ray is incidence at angle of 60 on a prism of angle 45 . When the light ray falls on the other surface at 90  from the surface, the refractive index of the material of prism  and the angle of deviation  are given by

3. The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is

(a) 45 cm
(b) 55 cm
(c) 275 6 cm
(d) 325 6 cm

4. A point object is moving on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the velocity of the image at that instant?

(a) 5 cm/sec
(b) 12 cm/sec
(c) 4 cm/sec
(d) 9 cm/sec

5. Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 10 cm and the size of image is twice as that of object, then the object distance is

(a) 60 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm 
(d) 30 cm

6. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f₁ and f₂ are in contact and coaxial. The combination is equivalent to a single lens of power

7. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed be

(a) 30 cm left 
(b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right
(d) 18 cm to the left

8. Relation between critical angles of water and glass is

a) C_w > C_g
b) C_w < C_g
c) C_w = C_g
(a) C_w = C_g= 0

9. The force between two points charges placed in vacuum at distance 1 mm is 18 N. If a glass plate of thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 6, be kept between the charges then new force between them would be

(a) 18 N
(b) 108 N         
(c) 3 N
(d) 3×10^-6 N

10. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q₁ and Q₂ and these charges are placed at distance . There will be maximum repulsion between them, when

(a) Q₂= (Q/R), Q₁=Q-(Q/R)
(b) Q₂= (Q/3), Q₁=(2Q/3)
(c) Q₂= (Q/4), Q₁=(3Q/4)
(d) Q₂= Q₂= (Q/2)

11. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed surface in units of N-m²/C are respectively 8×10³ and 4×10³. Then the total charge inside the surface is
[where ε₀= permittivity constant]

12. Find the total flux due to charge associated with the given hemispherical surface

13. Three capacitors of capacitance 4 μF, 6 μF and 12 μF are connected first in series and then in parallel. What is the ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases?

(a) 2:3
(b) 1:11
(c) 11:1
(d) 1:3

14. What is the equivalent capacitance of the system of capacitors between A and B?

15. A 2 m long wire has a resistance of 16 Ω. What is the resistance of this wire if it is 1 m long?

(a) 4 Ω
(b) 8 Ω            
(c) 32 Ω
(d) 64 Ω

16. What is the value of unknown resistance R, if galvanometer shows null deflection in the given meter bridge set up?

(a) 97.50 Ω 
(b) 105 Ω         
(c) 150 Ω
(d) 110 Ω

19. Position of a particle in a horizontal plane is given by x= 6t m and y=8t-5t² m. The velocity with which the particle starts moving?

22. A body starts from rest from the origin with an acceleration of 3 m/s² along the -axis and 4 m/s² along the  -axis. Its distance from the origin after 2  will be

(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m              
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m

23. particle moving with a velocity equal to 0.4 m/s is subjected to an acceleration of 15 m/s² for 2 in a direction at the right angle to its direction of motion. The resultant velocity is

(a) 0.7 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s          
(c) 0.1 m/s
(d) 0.7 - 0.1 m/s

24. A woman presses against a wall with a force of 10 N for 10 min. The work she does is

(a) 0
(b) 200 J          
(c) 1224 J
(d) 12 kJ

25. Which of the following units is the unit for measuring work done?

(a) Joule
(b) Watt          
(c) Newton
(d) Volt

26. A box of mass 2 kg is moving at a constant speed of 3 m s^-1 What is the kinetic energy of the box?

(a) 2 J
(b) 3 J             
(c) 9 J
(d) 18 J

27. A 50 kg mass has a P.E. of 4.9 kJ relative to the ground. The height of the mass above the ground is

(a) 10 m 
(b) 98 m          
(c) 960 m
(d) 245 km

28. A 1000 kg motor car travels at a constant speed of 30 m s^-1 along a road with a frictional force of 100 N. What is the power generated by the motorcar? (g = 10 m s¯²)

(a) 3000 W 
(b) 4500 W      
(c) 300 000 W
(d) 450 000 W

29. A spring 40 mm long is stretched by the application of a force. If 10 N force required to stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is

(a) 84 J
(b) 68 J            
(c) 23 J
(d) 8J

30. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm, and its spring constant is 4000 N/m. A mass of 20 kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is, (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)

(a) 4.9 cm
(b) 0.49 cm
(c) 9.4 cm
(d) 0.94 cm

CHEMISTRY

31. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 32, respectively, are

(a) 11, 2, 3
(b) 14, 4, 4
(c) 12, 3, 4
(d) 13, 3, 4

32. Which of the following is incorrect from the following

(a) Unp – Db               
(b) Uuu – Rg
(c) Uuo – Ts    
(d) Unn – Fm

33. The correct order of ionic radius are

a) K⁺ > Na > Mg ²⁺
b) Na > Na⁺ > Ca ²⁺
c) O^- < O ^2- < O
d) N^3- > F^- < F

34. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not iso-electronics ?

a) Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺
b) Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
c) He, H^-, Li ⁺
d) K⁺, Ca²⁺, Ne

35. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

(a) B < C O (Ionization Enthalpy)
(b) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic Character)
(c) O < O- < O2- (Ionic Size)
(d) F < Cl < Br < I (Electron Gain Enthalpy)

36. Assertion : Mendeleev’s left the gap under aluminium and silicon and called these Eka aluminium and Eka - silicon, respectively.
     Reason : Dobereiner arranged elements on the basis of increasing atomic number.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

37. The IUPAC symbol for the element Nobelium is

a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unb
d) Uns

38. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

39. Which one of the following processes proceeds with the absorption of energy ?

a) Cl + e^- → Cl-
b) F + e^- → F-
c) O^- + e^- → O^2-
d)  O + e^- → O-

40. Which of the following statements are not correct ?

a) Gallium wes earlier called eka –aluminium
b) 4^th period begins with Rubidium
c) 14 elements of 6^th period are called Lanthanoids
d) Henry Moseley discovered the relationship between X-ray spectra and atomic number of the elements.

41. At 25 ºC the vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 96.0 torr. What is the mole fraction of CH₃OH in a solution in which the partial vapour pressure of CH₃OH is 23.0 torr at 25 ºC!

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.15 
(d) 0.24

42. The vapour pressures of ethanol and methanol are 44.5 mm and 88.7 mm Hg respectively. An ideal solution is formed at the same temperature by mixing 60 g of ethanol with 40 g of methanol Calculate the mole fraction of methanol in the vapour.

(a) 0.55
(b) 0.65
(c) 0.35
(d) 0.25

43. A solution of sulphuric acid in water exhibits

(a) negative deviation from Raoult's law
(b) positive deviation from Raoult's law
(c) ideal properties
(d) the applicability of Henry's law.

44. 15 g of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 g of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%

45. The molarity of 20% (w/w) solution of sulphuric acid is 2.55 M. The density of the solution is

(a) 1.25 g cm³ 
(b) 0.125 g L^-1
(c) 2.55 g cm³
(d) unpredictable.

46. Solubility curve of Na₂SO₄10H₂O in water with temperature is given as in the figure, we can say that


a) solution process is exothermic
b) solution process is exothermic till 34 d ºC and endothermic after 34 ºC
c) solution process is endothermic till 34 ºC and exothermic thereafter
d) solution process is endothermic.

47. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A at 310°C is 120 torr. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is 72 torr. Calculate the mole fraction of A in solution if the mixture obeys Raoult's law.

(a) 0.06
(b) 0.9
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.6

48. The diagram given below is a vapour pressure composition diagram for a binary solution of A and B.


In the solution, A - B interactions are
(a) similar to A - A and B - B interactions
(b) greater than A - A and B - B interactions
(c) smaller than A - A and B - B interactions
(d) unpredictable.

61. Number of histone molecules in each nucleosome core is 

(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8

62. Which of the following heavy/radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labelling based studies?

(a) ³H
(b) ³²p
(c) ¹⁵N
(d) ³⁵S

63. A molecule to act as genetic material has the following properties
(i) Should be able to replicate
(ii) Structurally more stable
(iii) Should be more reactive and labile
(iv) Should provide scope for slow changes
Choose the correct option.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

64. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages. It resulted in radioactive

(a) viral proteins
(b) viral DNA
(c) plasma membrane of bacteria
(d) bacterial capsule.

65. Transformation experiments in bacteria were first performed by

(a) MacLeod
(b) Griffith
(c) Pasteur
(d) Meselson and Stahl.

66. Griffith's effect is called

(a) transduction
(b) transformation
(c) translocation
(d) all of these.

67. DNA replication is semiconservative as

(a) only non-parent strand acts as template
(b) both strands of new molecule are synthesised de novo
(c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental and the other is new
(d) daughter strands are dispersive.

68. In DNA replication, the leading strand is the one which replicates in

(a) 5'3' direction continuously
(b) 3'5' direction continuously
(c) 5'3' direction discontinuously
(d) 3'5' direction discontinuously

69. Gel electrophoresis is a

(a) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field
(b) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores made due to electrical impulses
(c) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agarose gel under the influence of electric field
(d) none of these.

70. In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet") has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?

(a) HindIII
(b) BamHI
(c) EcoRI
(d) Pstl

71. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of

(a) pentose sugar and phosphate
(b) hexose sugar and phosphate
(c) purine and pyrimidine
(d) triose sugar and phosphate

72. On an average, how many nitrogenous bases are present in one turn of DNA?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Eighteen

73. Central dogma of molecular biology was modified with the discovery of

(a) ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) reverse transcriptase

74. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

(a) Chromatography
(b) tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) gel electrophoresis.

75. PBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. These are against

(a) chloramphenicol and tetracycline
(b) kanamycin and chloramphenicol
(c) ampicillin and tetracycline
(d) ampicillin and kanamycin.

76. The first step in recombinant DNA technology is

(a) isolation of DNA
(b) insertion of DNA
(c) joining of sticky ends of DNA with its complementary DNA fragment
(d) multiplication of DNA.

77. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to DNA site

(a) regulator
(b) promoter
(c) enhancer
(d) receptor

78. In eukaryotes, RNA polymersa III catalyses the synthesis

(a)18 S rRNA
(b) tRNA
(c)mRNA
(d)5.8 rRNA

79. Intron is part of RNA which

(a) codes for protein synthesis
(b) helps in joining pieces of DNA
(c) does not code for protein synthesis
(d) initiates transcription

80. tRNA attaches to mRNA and amino acid respectively at

(a) anticodon loop and -CCA end
(b) -CCA end and anticodon loop
(c) anticodon loop and DHU loop
(d) DHU loop and -CCA end.

81. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for

(a) replication of RNA
(b) formation of peptide bond
(c) splicing
(d) elongation of transcription

82. The transgenic plant 'Flavr Savr' tomato carries an artificial gene for

(a) delayed ripening process
(b) longer shelf life
(c) enhanced flavour
(d) all of these

83. The transgenic plant shows improvement in

(a) yield
(c) disease resistance
(b) quality
(d) all of these.

84. A nemotote Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of

(a) tobacco
(b) cotton
(c) pea
(d) flax

85. Golden rice should be included in the diet of a person suffering from

(a) diabetes
(b) night blindness
(c) anaemia
(d) beri beri.

86. During the processing of the prohormone "proinsulin" into the mature "insulin"

(a) C-peptide is added to proinsulin
(b) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin
(c) B-peptide is added to proinsulin
(d) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin.

87. Location and secretion of Leydig's cells are

(a) testis-androgen binding protein
(b) epididymis-inhibin
(c) testis-testosterone
(d) seminal vesicle-LH.

88. ______is a small erectile organ lying at the upper junction of the labia minora.

(a) Labia majora
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons pubis
(d) Vulva

89. Which of the following is the function of ovary?

(a) Production of ovum
(b) Production of hormones
(c) Development of secondary sexual characters
(d) All of these

90. Polar bodies are produced during the formation of

(a) spermatocytes
(b) oogonium
(c) primary oocyte
(d) secondary oocyte.

91. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1

92. Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?

(a) Spermatogonial cells
(b) Germinal epithelial cells
(c) Secondary spermatocytes
(d) Primary spermatocytes

93. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH

(a) after completing meiosis II and before polar bodies are released
(b) after completing meiosis I and before release of polar bodies
(c) after completing mitosis
(d) after completing meiosis I and after release of polar bodies.

94. Site of fertilisation in humans is

(a) ampulla isthmus junction of oviduct
(b) isthmus uterine part
(c) infundibulum ampulla junction of fallopian tube
(d) ovary

95. Hormone that prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy is produced by

(a) corpus albicans
(b) corpus luteum
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) corpora cardiaca.

96. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.

(a) (i) equally, (ii) more
(b) (i) less, (ii) more
(c) (i) more, (ii) less
(d) (i) more, (ii) equally

97. Who among the following performed experiment on Vicia faba?

(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) Taylor
(d) Nirenberg and Ochoa

98. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(a) simple protein
(b) RNA
(c) ribonucleoprotein
(d) repetitive DNA

99. During replication of DNA

(a) the two daughter molecules develop from both the parental strand
(b) RNA functions as template
(c) one strand is from parent and one strand is freshly formed in the two daughter molecules
(d) one daughter receives both the parental strands while the other daughter receives newly formed strands.

100. Identify the incorrect statement from the following options.

(a) The trophoblast layer gets attached to the cervix and leads to implantation.
(b) The chorionic villi and uterine become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (fetus) and maternal body called placenta.
(c) The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord.
(d) Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens, etc.