Banking Mains Full Mock Test (03.11.24)

Banking Mains Full Mock Test 3 (28.09.24)

Welcome to your BANKING MAINS FULL MOCK TEST 1.11.2024

Name

1. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Each of them is from a different cities. The person from Prague sits third to the right of Q who is facing south. Six persons sit between H and the person who is from Prague. H and the person from Prague are facing opposite directions. M sits second to the left of H. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and facing the opposite direction to M. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. The one who sits fourth to the left of W sits at one of the extreme ends. The number of people sitting to the right of W is thrice the number of people sitting to the left of W. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T. The one who sits fourth to the left of D sits second to the left of the one who is seventh from one end. The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus. Q is sitting at an extreme end. W and the one from Damascus are facing opposite directions to D.

The same number of persons are sitting to the left of W as to the right of ___.

a) the one who is sitting second to the right of H.

b) the one who belong to Prague

c) the one who belong to Istanbul.

d) The one who is sitting second to the left of H

e) the one who belongs to Damascus.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

2. Who is sitting fourth to the right of the person who is sitting second to the right of M?

a) the one who belong to Alexandria
b) the one who is sitting immediately right of the one who belong to Prague.
c) the person who is sitting exactly in the middle of H and D.
d) the person who is second to the right of the person who belongs to Istanbul.
e) the one who is sitting second to the left of D.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

3. Which of the following pair is sitting second to the right of each other?

a) T and the one who is from Prague
b) Q and the one who is from Alexandria
c) The one who is from Istanbul and W
d) H and D
e) The one who is from Prague and Damascus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

4. How many persons are sitting between D and Q?

a) One
b) Seven
c) Five
d) Ten
e) Eight

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

5. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows. Four persons are sitting in each row. P, Q, R, and S are sitting in row 1 and they are facing south. A, B, C, and D are sitting in row 2 and they are facing north. All the persons are equidistant and facing each other in the opposite row.
Statement I: A is sitting second from one end of the row. Q is not sitting adjacent to R. B is not sitting adjacent to A. The one who is facing A sits immediately right of P. One person sits between P and R.
Statement II: Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends. S is sitting second to the right of the one facing B. S is not sitting at any extreme end.
Statement III: C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other. S and P are sitting adjacent to each other. P is not facing A. A is sitting second from one of the ends. One person sits between the one who is facing C and R. C is not sitting to the left of D.

Who is sitting immediately left of the person who is facing Q?

a) The data in Statement III is alone is sufficient to answer the question
b) The data in both the Statements I and III together is sufficient to answer the question
c) The data in both Statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.
d) The data in both Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
e) The data in Statement II is alone is sufficient to answer the question

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

6. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F were born in six different months January, March, April, May, June, and July.
Statement I: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before E was the same as persons born after D. B was born in a month of 30 days. A was born one month before F.
Statement II: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before C was the same as persons born after F. D was immediately born before C. C was born before F. C was born in March.
Statement III: F was born after May. Three persons are born between F and D. One person was born between B and D. C was born before F.

Who was born in March?

a) The data given in Statement III is sufficient to answer the question.
b) The data given in Statement I alone and Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) The data given in both statement I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
d) The data given in Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
e) The data given in both Statement I and Statement III is not sufficient to answer the question

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

7. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight persons B, D, M, N, P, R, S, and Y are related to each other born in 1952, 1956, 1962, 1981, 1984, 1987, 2014, and 2017 not necessarily in the same order. Age is calculated from 2023. M's spouse has a niece who is N. The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. The difference between D and D's son is a prime number less than twenty. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age. B has a sibling only. M has a son. M's uncle is not D but M's uncle's age is a prime number. S is not married to B. M has a father. There is an equal number of males and females. D has no siblings. P is the grandmother of M's only son. P is the grandmother of Y. M's father has no sibling of his own and M's mother has no sister.

Which of the following age is a perfect square?

a) the one who is born immediately after M.
b) Y
c) the one who is born immediately after P
d) R
e) the one who is born immediately after S.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

8. In which of the year D is born?

a) 1956
b) 1981
c) 1962
d) 1952
e) 1984

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

9. How is S related to N?

a) Mother
b) Father
c) Sister
d) Daughter
e) Brother-in-law

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

10. What is the sum of the age of M and S?

a) 60 years
b) 81 years
c) 90 years
d) 52 years
e) 50 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

11. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, M, N, O, and P are sitting on a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Five of them are facing the center and the rest are facing away from the center. Consecutive Alphabetical persons are not sitting next to each other. O sits second to the right of B. C sits third to the right of O. Three persons sit between C and D. D sits second to the left of A. M is facing away from the center. P sits immediately right of N. P and A are facing opposite directions to each other. Immediate neighbors of P are facing the same direction. The one who sits second to the left of P is facing away from the center.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. A is sitting second to the right of D.

II. N and P are immediate neighbors.

III. Two persons are sitting between B and C when counted to the right of B.

a) Both I and II

b) Both II and III

c) Only II

d) Both I and III

e) Only III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

12. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are ten trains P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y which are at the base station. Four platforms P1, P2, P3, and P4 where the first train can reach at 5 AM, 6 AM, 7 AM, and 8 AM respectively. Platform P1 is the nearest Platform and Platform P4 is the farthest. There must be a gap of one hour between the two trains reaching a particular station. The speed of the trains is considered to be the same. At most three trains can have a platform as its destination.
Train R and S started from the base station and reached the nearest platform in a gap of 1 hour. R started its journey earlier than S. R reached the destination at 6 AM. Train P stopped its journey at a platform which is two more than Train S. Train X reached the last platform. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T and Y. Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X. Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination. Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Which of the following platforms have more than two trains?

a) P1 and P4
b) P2 and P3
c) P1 and P2
d) P3 and P4
e) P2 and P4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

13. Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. Train Q's destination is P4.
II. Train T and Train U's destinations are the same.
III. Train S's destination is ahead of Train U's destination

a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III
c) All I, II and III
d) Only II
e) Only I and III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

14. Which of the following trains have destination as P3?

a) Train P, Train Q, Train Y.
b) Train U and Train R
c) Train P, Train W
d) Train X and Train S
e) Train W and Train U

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

15. At what time Train S reached the platform P1?

a) 9AM
b) 8AM
c) 7AM
d) 10 AM
e) 12 AM

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

16. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A certain number of boxes are kept in two stacks (Stack 1 and Stack 2) one above the other such that Stack 1 is in west of Stack 2. The bottommost box is numbered as 1 and the box just above it is numbered as 2 and so on. Both stacks have different numbers of boxes. The sum of the total number of boxes kept in both stacks is Thirteen. At most eight boxes are kept in each stack. Out of these thirteen boxes, six boxes are of different Colours (Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, and Lime). The remaining boxes are White.
Note: If it is given that a box is kept one/two/three boxes above/below another box then both the boxes are kept in the same stack unless stated otherwise. If it is given that a box is kept adjacent to another box, then the position (box number) of both boxes must be the same unless stated otherwise. Each of the stacks has a box (no stack is vacant).
P is not kept in Stack 2. K is kept three boxes above J which is kept in the same stack as G. F which is a White box is kept adjacent to G which is an even-numbered box. E and G are kept in different stacks. T which is the pink box is kept adjacent to K which is a White box. Blue box is kept two boxes above the Lime box which is kept in the same stack as the T. Cyan box and Lime box are not kept in the same stack. M is kept two boxes above L but not in the same stack. P is kept in one box below N but not in the same stack. H which is a White box is kept adjacent to the blue box. The Aqua box is kept one box above the cyan box but not in the same stack. C is kept three boxes above D which is an even prime numbered box. E which is a red color box kept two boxes above C. G is not the topmost box.
Which of the following statements is false?
I. Box L is in Stack 2.
II. Box D is of Lime color.
III. Box F and Box G are adjacent to each other.

a) Only I
b) Both I and II
c) Both II and III
d) Only II
e) Only II

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

a) Box H
b) Box L
c) Box J
d) Box G
e) Box K

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

18. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight employees of a company need to be divided into four groups. Four groups A, B, C, and D need to be formed based on the employee's Experience, Salary, Qualification, and Interest. Each group has two members only.
Condition 1: Meena is not in groups A and D. The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.
Condition 2: Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.
Condition 3: Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Meena and Anju belong to the same group.
II. Group A has members with an interest in Design and Python
III. Group C has members who have experience of two years.

a) Only II
b) Only I
c) Only III
d) Only II and III
e) Only I and III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

19.What are the topic of Interest of the members who belong to Group C?

a) Design and Science
b) English and Chemistry
c) C++ and English
d) Mathematics and Python
e) Python and Java

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

20. If the member of Group A with one year of experience is interchanged with the member of B having five years of experience then the members of Group B are?

a) Tia and Piyush
b) Meena and Harsh
c) Anju and Nitin
d) Geeta and Tia
e) Nitin and Geeta

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

21.What is the difference in the monthly salary of members of Group D?

a) 25000
b) 15000
c) 20000
d) 30000
e) 10000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

22. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Ten people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J sit at two rectangular tables X and Y. Three of them like horror novels, three like thriller novels and the remaining like romance novels. Four people sit at table X and the remaining sit at table Y. The person sitting in the middle faces outside the center and the person sitting in the corner faces inside the center. People sitting at Table X sit in the middle of the table and at Table Y four persons sit in the middle and four sit in the corner. Two seats are vacant in Table Y. D sits at table X. J does not sit at table Y. G sits immediately left of J and neither of them like thrillers. The one who likes romance does not sit in the middle of table Y. D likes romance and sits opposite G. E likes romance and sits at table Y. Both the immediate neighbors of E like thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A. C sits at table X. B does not like thrillers and romance. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.
After the arrangement:
I. J and H change their novels.
II. F and G change their novels.
III. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A.
IV. B and E change their place but not the novels.
Note: The final arrangement is obtained after the I, II, III, and IV changes are done.
Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. G likes Horror novels.
II. E, F, and J are sitting on the table Y.
III. A and I are immediate neighbors.

a) Only II
b) Only I
c) Only III
d) Only I and III
e) Only II and III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

23.The person who is sitting third to the right of person who is sitting immediately right of F likes ____ novels.

a) Thriller
b) Either Horror or Romance
c) Horror
d) Romance
e) Either Thriller or Horror

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

24.Who are the immediate neighbors of J?

a) E and H
b) G and D
c) A and B
d) C and F
e) A and F

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

a) E
b) F
c) H
d) I
e) A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

26. Which of the following group of people have horror novel only?

a) G, D, F
b) H, I, J
c) A, B, E
d) J, E, F
e) G, H, B

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

27. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Twelve persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V live in a five-storeyed building such that the ground floor is numbered 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is numbered 5. Each of the floors has four flats in it Flat A, Flat B, Flat C, and Flat D. Floor 2 of Flat A is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat A and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat A and so on. In the same way, Floor 2 of Flat B is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat B and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat B. Flat A is in the west of Flat B, Flat B is in the west of Flat C, and Flat C is to the west of Flat D. Eight flats are vacant.
Note: Minimum two and not more than three people live on a floor.
M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T. S lives to the west of N but not to the adjacent of N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. L does not live on the same floor as M and T. Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. N and T do not live on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K.
Four among the five of the following are same in a manner. Which of the following is odd one out?

a) O
b) M
c) K
d) P
e) U

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

28. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. R lives on the floor 4.
II. L lives on the flat A and Floor 3.
III. K and V lives on the same flat.

a) Only I
b) Only III
c) Both I and III
d) Both I and II
e) Only II

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

29. Who else is living in the same floor as M?

a) S and P
b) K and O
c) S and N
d) M and Q
e) T and K

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

30. How many persons are living in the Flat D?

a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Five
e) Four

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

31. In which of the floor and Flat Q live?

a) Floor 1 and Flat B
b) Floor 3 and Flat C
c) Floor 5 and Flat A
d) Floor 2 and Flat D
e) Floor 4 and Flat A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

32. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
The popularity of physical newspapers is decreasing nowadays because people prefer digital newspapers more.
So, there is a demand to ban physical newspapers.
I. People nowadays prefer to download e-newspaper and magazines as they are handy and can be easily available anytime.
II. Even today, a few people prefer physical newspapers because they are not tech-friendly and cannot operate the internet.
III. Some Newspaper agencies have also started their online e-magazines and e-newspaper at affordable prices and monthly subscriptions.
IV. Some printing presses are unable to continue their printing press due to the loss incurred by them.
V. Digital newspapers contain unlimited content with various new features for their readers.

Which of the following will weaken the above statement?

a) Only II
b) Only III
c) Only I
d) Only IV
e) Only V

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

33. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
Sportec, a sports manufacturing company, provides jerseys and sponsorship of other equipment to the National Football Team of Country X. They renew their contracts every two years and this year the contract will be ending in two months. Xpact another sports manufacturing company from country X, is hopeful for seeking a contract when Sportec's contract ends.
I. Six months ago, there was a change in the upper management body of the governing country X's football institution, and they might be interested in changing the terms and conditions of the contract with Sportec.
II. This year, there have been reports that Sportec encountered huge losses and they have been struggling in the sports market of country X.
III. Sportec, which belongs to country X has conflicted with the two neighboring countries of country Z.
IV Xpact is providing many new features to the National Team that are not being provided by Sportec.
V. Xpact is the only company other than Sportec that manufactures jerseys and other equipment related to football.

Which among the following, If true will allow the team to not renew their contract with the company Sportec and help Xpact to get the contract?

a) Only IV
b) Only IV and II
c) Only II and III
d) Only I
e) Only V

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

34. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
A company called Abeba is a multinational IT company, that has branches in fifteen countries around the world and has its headquarters in country H, where it has twenty branches. Therefore, the company hires freshers from engineering colleges and universities throughout the country. Recently the company has let go of many of the freshers of the company and also many have left the company due to the work not being done properly which is making the company's performance weak in the market.
I. There has to be a mandatory two years experience required from other software companies so that they will be eligible to join the company.
II. The company can take in freshers but there has to be strictness required to be held for the freshers so that only the best can be recruited.
III. There is no need to take in any freshers from country H.
IV. The freshers should be paid less as they are completely new as compared to the ones who are already in this industry.

What could be the course of action?

a) Only II
b) Only III and II
c) Only I , II and III
d) Only IV
e) Only III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

35. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There is a matrix that contains four rows (I, II, III, and IV) from top to bottom and four columns (I, II, III, and IV) from left to right. Word will be formed when we go left to right in a row and top to bottom in the column.
Conditions:
1. No letters are repeated more than twice.
2. If a column/row has one letter then the entire column/row should not have that letter. For example: If row I and column I has x letters then that letter should not repeat in entire row I or column I.
3. Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1
4. Place values of column and row are added to get the cell value of a particular row or column.
5. A Meaningful letter has to be formed in each column.
Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.
Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.
Column III: II position contains R.
Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

What is the sum of the place values of (I, IV) and ( III, I)?

a) Six
b) Eight
c) Nine
d) Two
e) Five

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

36. What is the alphabet at (Row III, Column III)?

a) I
b) U
c) O
d) Y
e) T

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

37. What is the sum of positional value of the letter in (III, III) and that in (I, III), where the brackets represent(row, column)?

a) 9
b) 6
c) 11
d) 8
e) 10

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

38. What is the difference between the value of column I and of row II?

a) Eight
b) Two
c) Six
d) Zero
e) Five

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

39. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
There is a much-anticipated planning of three parks across three major locations in the city mainly focused on younger children's physical and mental development, bearing the slogan 'Learn and Play' through games and exercise. There will also be a nominal fee charged for every adult who makes entry into the park.
I. The children will be mostly accompanied by their guardians in the parks.
II. Two out of three localities are situated near high schools and one of these locations is situated near a college, where students will frequently enter the park.
III. Eight out of ten rides in these parks are made for adults and not for children's use.
IV. The parks are divided into three sections, each section will be charged accordingly.
V. Few activities in the park are near the electricity station which supplies electricity to the park, therefore the park has to be opened at 6 AM for the children.

Which of the following if true will most weaken the planning committee's plan of building these children's parks?

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

40. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
University X allows admissions for both men and women. They are allowed to fill out the detailed application form. A recent report given by some agencies has revealed that the admission process at University X is gender biased.
I. The technical course offers more seats for men than women.
II. The technical skills required vary from course to course in the university.
III. Last year more seats were allotted to women as compared to men.
IV. Many courses offered in the university allow only men to enroll in it.
V. There is no female faculty for the ongoing courses at the university.

Which of the following statements strengthens the report?

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

41. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
To encourage Higher education from Government Institutions, the Government is setting up all the Public Sector Institutions with the basic as well as advanced amenities at par with the Private Institutions.
Which of the following most weakens the decision of the Government?
I. Many people are interested in joining the Private Institutions due to a lack of trust in Public Institutions.
II. Private Institutions are better equipped than Public Institutions.
III. Public Institutions have a limited number of faculties as compared to the vast number of faculties in Private Institutions.
IV. Private institutions provide guaranteed jobs to the students after the course ends.
V. Private Institutions are run by a franchise and if they incur any sort of loss, they can be shut down anytime.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

42. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and a number rearrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 7289 CLAY 2854 POUR 5941 ABLE 6217 FLIP 9723 ONUS
Step I: 49398 ABLE 4963 ONUS 251050 CLAY 36326 FLIP 81832 POUR
Step II: 48399 BAKF 4639 PMVR 2155 BKBX 26633 EKJO 28813 OPVQ
Step III: 1221 BKF 1012 PMVR 211 KX 146 KJ 184 PVQ
Step IV: 429 BFK 134 MPRV 119 KX 22 JK 2 PQV
Step V: 432 130 117 20 5
Step V is the last step for the above input. Find out the appropriate steps for the following input.
Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Which is the right most word set in Step IV?

a) NMY
b) POU
c) MYT
d) TYN
e) PRV

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

43. What is the difference between the greatest and second smallest digit in Step V?

a) 324
b) 503
c) 342
d) 203
e) 213

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

44. What is the difference between third largest number obtained in Step III and the fourth smallest number obtained in the same step?

a) 32
b) 65
c) 27
d) 47
e) 94

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

45. In Step II, What number is immediately left of 'FUFM'?

a) 44465
b) 46383
c) 33567
d) 22657
e) 45273

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

46. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched a Psyche Aircraft for the Psyche Mission for the exploration of a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the sun between _______ and _______.

a) Earth; Mars
b) Mars; Jupiter
c) Mercury; Venus
d) Jupiter; Saturn
e) Venus; Earth

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

47. Which of the following person to head panel formed on 'One Nation, One Election'?

a) Ram Nath Kovind
b) Ranjan Gogoi
c) Pratibha Devisingh Patil
d) Yashwant Sinha
e) Amit Shah

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

48. What is India's 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site?

a) Sanchi Stupa
b) Vishwanath Temple
c) Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas
d) Victoria Memorial
e) Gateway of India

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

49. In October 2023, IMF raises India’s 2023 GDP growth forecast to?

a) 6.3%
b) 6.1%
c) 6.5%
d) 6.7%
e) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

50. India's 1st state-of-the-art 3D-Printed post office opens In ___________

a) Mumbai
b) Jaipur
c) Lucknow
d) Bengaluru
e) Patna

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

51. Which of the following has recently launched a new consumer-facing application 'Pincode 'which will be integrated into India's Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) framework?

a) PhonePe
b) Razorpay
c) Paytm
d) Cashfree Payments
e) Mobikwik

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

52. The RBI asked banks to maintain an Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) of what percent on the increase in their deposits between May 19 and July 28, 2023?

a) 6%
b) 13.5%
c) 10%
d) 12%
e) 15%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

53. What does "O" stand for in GLOF?

a) Output
b) Offer
c) Ordinance
d) Outburst
e) Open

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

54. What is the amount of viability gap funding approved by the Cabinet for the development of Battery Energy Storage System?

a) Rs 3,760 crores.
b) Rs 3,670 crores.
c) Rs 3,780 crores.
d) Rs 3,790 crores.
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

55. Which of the following person received the Spinoza Prize 2023 in the field of climate change?

a) Ignas Snellen
b) Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta
c) Toby Kiers
d) Only (2) and (3)
e) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

56. SBI Funds Management Limited received the RBI's approval to acquire up to a 9.99% paid-up share capital in which bank?

a) Indian Bank
b) IndusInd Bank
c) Yes Bank
d) HDFC Bank
e) ICICI Bank

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

57. ________ recently launched Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes.

a) SBI
b) Yes Bank
c) Bank of Baroda
d) Axis Bank
e) HDFC

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

58. Who was Valery Polyakov, who passed away in September 2022?

a) Russian Scientist
b) Russian Cosmonaut
c) Russian Actor
d) Russian Former President
e) Russian Chess Grandmaster

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

59. Name the non-profit organisation that has recently signed a new cooperation agreement with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) & Olympic Museum to promote the Olympic Values Education Programme (OVEP) in India.

a) Infosys Foundation
b) Reliance Foundation
c) Akshaya Patra Foundation
d) Paani Foundation
e) Smile Foundation

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

60. Who has expanded its partnership with Standard Bank Group (SBG) to centralize its custody and securities settlement operations in over 15 markets?

a) Tata Consultancy Services
b) Infosys
c) IBM
d) Wipro
e) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

61. What is India's rank in Crude Oil Refining?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

62 Who has introduced Card Verification Code (CVC)-free online transactions for customers who have tokenized their debit and credit cards on merchant platforms?

a) Visa
b) Mastercard
c) RuPay
d) American Express
e) 1, 2 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

63. Which of the following country restarted ferry services connecting Nagapattinam from India to Kankesanthurai after 40 years?

a) Thailand
b) Bangladesh
c) Maldives
d) Sri Lanka
e) Pakistan

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

64. Which of the following is NOT the sport added in the Los Angeles Olympics 2028?

a) Baseball
b) Cricket
c) Lacrosse
d) Billiards
e) Squash

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

65. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently came out with new guidelines to enhance safety in transportation of dangerous, hazardous goods posing threat to public safety, properties and environment. BIS works under the aegis of which of the following ministries?

a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
e) Ministry of Science and Technology

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

66. Nobel Prizes are distributed annually at

a) Geneva
b) New York
c) Manila
d) Stockholm
e) Oslo

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

67. Which bank has recently partnered with Social Worth Technologies Private Limited (Fibe) to launch India's first-ever numberless credit card?

a) Axis Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) HDFC Bank
d) Indusind Bank
e) YES Bank

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

68. Consider the following regarding the Global Biofuels Alliance:
1. This Alliance will be aimed at facilitating cooperation and intensifying the use of sustainable biofuels, including in the transportation sector.
2. It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide.
3. The GBA has been in the works for some time now and is a key initiative and priority under India’s G20 presidency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct here?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
e) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

69. Who has signed a MoU with Tata Power Solar Systems Limited to provide financing for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to set up solar rooftops?

a) State Bank of India
b) ICICI Bank
c) Axis Bank
d) Small Industries Development Bank of India
e) HDFC Bank

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

70. Which of the following method securities are not issued directly to the public but through stock brokers, who in turn, resell them to the investing public in the primary market?

a) Offer through Prospectus
b) Offer for sale
c) Private placement
d) Rights Issue
d) e-IPOs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

71. Which company has recently acquired India's first Airbus A350-900 aircraft through a finance lease transaction with HSBC via the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City ?

a) Air India
b) IndiGo
c) Go First
d) Vistara
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

72. Who has been appointed as the 11th fund manager authorised to manage retirement savings within the National Pension System by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)?

a) LIC Pension Fund Managers
b) DSP Pension Fund Managers
c) Kotak Pension Fund Managers
d) HDFC Pension Fund Managers
e) SBI Pension Fund Managers

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

73. 'Longpi Hampai pottery', is indigenously related to which of the following?

a) Mizoram
b) Meghalaya
c) Manipur
d) Assam
e) Nagaland

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

74. The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that enable the measurement of the deepening and penetration of digital payments in the country over different time periods. Which of the parameters is not included in DPI??

a) Payment Enablers
b) Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors
c) Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors
d) Payment Performance
e) Retailer Centricity

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

75. Which ministry launched Enhanced Access and Service Excellence-EASE 5.0 for state-run lenders?

a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
b) Ministry of Law and Justice
c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
d) Ministry of Mines
e) Ministry of Finance

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

76. On the occasion of the 2nd edition of NPS Diwas observed on October 1, 2023, which pension management company has launched a first-of-its-kind 'National Pension System (NPS) Preference Index'?

a) HDFC Pension Management
b) SBI Pension Fund Management
c) Aditya Birla Sun Life Pension Management
d) ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management
e) Kotak Mahindra Pension Fund Management

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

77. Which company that has been recently named as the official sponsor of the Indian Contingent for the 19th Asian Games 2022?

a) OPPO
b) MRF
c) Paytm
d) PUMA
e) Amul

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

78. Which of the following commissions set-up by the President of India decides the distribution of tax incomes between the Central and State Governments?

a) Central Law Commission
b) Pay Commission for Government Employees
c) Administrative Reforms Commission
d) Planning Commission
e) Finance Commission

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

79. ___ was established in the Year: 2000, as an Independent Authority, to Regulate and Develop the Insurance Industry.

a) Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I.)
b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (S.E.B.I.)
c) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.)
d) Association of Mutual Funds in India (A.M.F.I.)
e) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (P.F.R.D.A.)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

80. Which of the following pairs are the top two stock broker companies in India?

a) Zerodha, Groww
b) Groww, Angel One
c) Angel One, Upstox
d) Zerodha, Upstox
e) Groww, Upstox

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

81. Name the bank that has recently partnered with OneCard to launch mobile-first VISA Signature metal co-branded credit cards.

a) Punjab National Bank
b) Canara Bank
c) Bank of India
d) Indian Bank
e) Bank of Baroda

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

82. Meta has partnered with which company for its latest AI model called LLAMA-2?

a) Google
b) Amazon
c) Microsoft
d) Facebook
e) AWS

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

83. In May 2023, The gross GST revenue collected in the month of April, 2023 is ₹ 1,87,035 crore. What is the increment compared to April 2022 ?

a) 20%
b) 12%
c) 18%
d) 19%
e) 25%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

84. Which of the following schemes is/are related to the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)?

a) PMFBY
b) PM KISAN
c) NFSM
d) APY
e) All of the Above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

85. What is the name of Israel's air defense system?

a) S 400 Defense System
b) Iron Dome
c) Air defense Dome
d) Kavach
e) Blanket Protector

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

86. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.

The CEO's foresight regarding the company’s trajectory was audacious(A), delineated by pioneering(B) methodologies to circumvent market unpredictability and endorsed(C) by the entire organizational hierarchy.

a) ACB
b) CBA
c) CAB
d) Both 1 & 3
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

87. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.

The legislative amendments were contentious(A), acclaimed(B) by the populace for their lucidity, and scrutinized(C) by diverse interest groups.

a) ABC
b) CAB
c) BCA
d) Both 1 & 3
e) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

88. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The historical narrative was enriched(A) in its depiction of events, grounded (B) by a rich variety of sources, and comprehensive(C) in the author's personal insights.

a) ABC
b) ACB
c) BCA
d) Both 2 & 3
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

89. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The chef’s approach to traditional recipes is innovative(A), as seen in his meticulous(B) to ingredient selection and exemplified(C) in his cooking techniques.

a) CAB
b) BCA
c) ABC
d) Both 1 & 2
e) Both 2 & 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

90. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The research highlighted the subtle(A) effects of climate change, which are often underscored(B) by rapid shifts in weather patterns and corroborated(C) by extensive scientific studies.

a) ABC
b) BAC
c) CAB
d) Both 1 & 3
e) Both 2 & 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

91. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In the digital era, data privacy has become a cornerstone of consumer trust and business ethics. However, not all companies adhere to the sanctity of personal information. One glaring example emerged when a tech giant was accused of massive data breaches, affecting millions of users. This breach not only exposed sensitive personal information but also undermined public trust in digital enterprises.
This company, known for its extensive digital footprint, failed to secure its databases properly, leading to unauthorized access by cybercriminals. Personal details such as social security numbers, email addresses, and financial information were compromised, leaving consumers vulnerable to identity theft and fraud. The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory ________.
Amidst the turmoil, an opponent company, CyberShield Inc., stepped into the spotlight, offering a stark contrast in the handling of data security. CyberShield Inc., a firm specializing in cybersecurity solutions, quickly addressed the pressing concerns raised by the breach. Recognizing the urgency to restore public confidence, they launched a new suite of privacy protection tools designed to safeguard user data effectively.
CyberShield’s response was swift and robust. They introduced an advanced real-time monitoring system that utilized artificial intelligence to detect potential breaches before they could inflict harm. Moreover, their new encryption protocols ensured that data, even if intercepted, would remain indecipherable to unauthorized parties.CyberShield also initiated widespread public awareness campaigns, educating consumers on safeguarding their digital footprints against such vulnerabilities.
Their proactive approach not only provided a blueprint for effective data management but also positioned CyberShield as a leader in the cybersecurity field. The company’s dedication to upholding data privacy contrasted sharply with the negligent practices of its competitor. By prioritizing user safety, CyberShield not only captured a significant market share but also established new industry standards for data protection.
This incident serves as a critical lesson for all digital enterprises: in the age of cyber threats, the protection of consumer data is not just a regulatory requirement but a fundamental component of customer trust and business integrity. Companies that fail to understand this risk not only legal repercussions but also irreversible damage to their reputation and consumer trust. In contrast, those who lead the way in cybersecurity measures set themselves apart in an increasingly competitive and privacy-conscious market.

What is implied about the impact of the data breach on consumers?

a) Consumers were indifferent to the breach of their personal data.
b) There was a significant shift in consumer trust away from companies that failed to protect data.
c) Consumers filed lawsuits against CyberShield Inc. for failing to protect their data.
d) The data breach had no real impact on consumer behavior or attitudes.
e) Consumers' financial information was unaffected by the breach.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

92. How might the tech industry respond to the increasing occurrences of data breaches, as suggested by the passage?

a) There will likely be a decline in the use of digital platforms due to security concerns.
b) New regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures.
c) Companies might shift their focus from innovation to data protection.
d) Businesses are expected to downplay the importance of data security to maintain customer loyalty.
e) Most companies will ignore the need for change and continue with existing security protocols.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

93. What is the likely effect of CyberShield Inc.'s proactive measures on its industry reputation?

a) CyberShield Inc. is recognized as taking advantage of the situation for marketing purposes.
b) The industry views CyberShield Inc.'s actions as standard and not particularly innovative.
c) CyberShield Inc. sets a new standard in the industry for how to handle data breaches effectively.
d) CyberShield's initiatives are seen as superficial and unlikely to provide real security improvements.
e) The company is criticized for not collaborating with other industry leaders to address the issue

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

94. What likely influenced CyberShield Inc.'s decision to launch new privacy protection tools following the data breach incident?

a) A direct request from affected consumers.
b) Market research indicating a need for enhanced security products.
c) Competitive pressures from other tech companies.
d) The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy.
e) Financial incentives offered by cybersecurity insurance providers.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

95. Fill in the blank:
The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory _______.

a) implementation
b) compliance
c) legislation
d) enforcement
e) protocol

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

96. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.
Critics ________ Russia will use the ________ project to expand its ________ in Europe.
A. infrastructure
B. assume
C. fear
D. boundary
E. influence

a) BAD
b) EDA
c) DEC
d) CAE
e) ECA

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

97. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.
A pandemic, an _________ crisis of historic proportions and a _________ endless upwards surge in the price of houses — it _________ an unlikely combination.
A. global
B. seemingly
C. look
D. economic
E. seems

a) ADC
b) ABE
c) DBE
d) DBC
e) ACE

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

98. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The volume of _________ investment, particularly in the form of international _________ flows from major corporations, hedge _________ and other financial market actors.
A. large
B. institutional
C. capital
D. investment
E. funds

a) BCE
b) ADE
c) BDA
d) CDE
e) ABD

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

99. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The European Commission on Thursday _________ a plan to provide digital _________ for the EU’s 450 million residents to _________ their identity documents.
A. store
B. shrouded
C. bring
D. unveiled
E. wallets

a) DEC
b) BAC
c) BEC
d) BED
e) DEA

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

100. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

Belgium has a ________ ID card that has a mobile app equivalent that is used to ________ taxes, carry out bank transfers or request ________ documents from local authorities.
A. mandatory
B. pay
C. key
D. amazing
E. all

a) DBA
b) ABE
c) ABC
d) ABD
e) DBC

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

101. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Infrastructure is a tricky business. When it comes to public infrastructure projects, the benefits are long-term but the costs are short-term. (______). So an elected leader gets all the flak from those who oppose this white elephant/blot on the landscape but none of the praise for the reduced traffic jams or cheaper power that ensue.

1. Private investors are happy to own infrastructure projects once they are up and running and delivering reliable yields, they are less keen on financing Greenfield projects with all the risks that go with them.
2. The politician that authorises the project is rarely the same one that opens it.
3. Infrastructure can have positive externalities that are not captured by investors but will benefit society (the building of the internet or America's interstate highway system, for example).
4. Far too many projects get build and the overall returns are disappointing.
5. All the given options fit.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

102. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence that fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.
(____). By 2023 more than 4.5 million are expected every year- about the same as the country's resident population. Tourism has overtaken dairy produce as the biggest export, helped by a large number of visitors from China. They are seen to experience the natural beauty promised by the country's "100% pure New Zealand" advertising campaign and shown off in the film adaptations of "The Lord of the Rings" and 'The Hobbit", which were shot in New Zealand's breathtaking wilderness.

a) In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.
b) Tourists already contribute around NZ $1.1 billion through the country's 15 percent sales tax.
c) It would be difficult to prevent tourists from sneaking around the toll booths.
d) Many New Zealanders foresee a huge influx of foreigners who have been seeking to four national parks.
e) All the given options fit

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

103. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

(______). Rising prosperity in the region means the cost of manual work, outsourced to the region is rising. Labour shortages loom. Certain jobs require craft skills which are becoming rarer. From the first sketch of a completely new pair of trainers to making and testing prototypes, ordering materials, sending samples back and forth, rebooting a factory, working up production, and eventually shipping the finished goods to the shops can take the industry as long as 18 months.

a) Currently, trainers (shoes) are made mostly by hand in giant factories, often in Asian countries, with people assembling components or shaping, bonding and sewing materials
b) In Asia wealth is rising
c) Many people now have the wherewithal to avoid tasks that are thought of as manual and monstrous.
d) The company will use robots and novel production techniques such as 3D printing to reinvent its manufacturing process.
e) All the given options fit.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

104. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. But at the macroeconomic level, it is important. Growth can come from having more labour (recruiting more workers, or making existing employees work for longer hours), more capital, or by using that labour and capital more effectively- something known as total factor productivity (TFP). This can come from the kind of brilliant innovations devised by Thomas Edison. (______)

a) This shows that at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007.
b) It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work.
c) Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up
d) A recovery has been underway for a while.
e) Others might counter that the full benefits of new technology are not reflected in the data

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

105. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) / recommends QR codes on food products for ensure (A) / accessibility for visually impaired individuals, (B) / promoting informed consumer choices (C) / and addressing rising non-communicable diseases. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

106. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman expressed concerns (A) / about fuel, food security, and supply chain disruptions, (B) / emphasizing the need to prevent / essential supplies from becoming (C) / instruments of war and disruption. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

107. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

If daily salt intake is reduced (A) / by five to eight grams, / the risk of cardiovascular disease can be lowered, (B) / and this reduction can help preventing (C) / obesity and high blood pressure. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

108. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

These companies exploit celebrity endorsements (A) / for seemingly harmless products like elaichi / to indirectly promote tobacco and nicotine items, (B) / capitalizing on legal loopholes and lucrative revenue, (C) / and casting ethical concerns beside. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

109. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

The shift towards the gig economy (A) / and short-term contracts poses an unique (B) / challenge for India, where a growing youth population (C) / seeks dignified work / and social security amid rapid economic growth. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

110. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

Film critics often faces pressure to (A) / write positive reviews or risk losing / access to exclusive screenings, (B) / talent interactions, and merchandise due to (C) / the influence of marketing and social media fandom. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

111. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question
will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
In recent years, minimalism has emerged as a guiding philosophy, advocating for a simplified and intentional approach to life. Sudha Murty, a prominent writer and philanthropist, recently addressed a gathering dominated by children and young adults, urging them to embrace a minimalist lifestyle. This concept, gaining traction, especially in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals from unnecessary baggage, fostering a more peaceful and contented existence. At its core, minimalism encourages making intelligent choices about what to keep and what to eliminate, with decluttering serving as its cornerstone. Bedrooms, often the most cluttered spaces in many homes, can significantly impact occupants' well-being and sleep habits. Advocates of minimalism suggest opting for minimalist bedrooms with streamlined wardrobes, creating environments conducive to focus and relaxation. Toys, too, occupy considerable space in modern households. Minimalism suggests decluttering by either eliminating unused items or donating them to orphanages, promoting a more purposeful use of living space. The philosophy extends beyond physical possessions, calling for a modification of lifestyle, a shift in mindset, and a reduction in unnecessary comforts. It emphasizes satisfying needs over succumbing to greed, prompting individuals to scrutinize each purchase for its absolute necessity.
Minimalism provides tangible benefits, including a more economical use of money and resources, decluttered living spaces, reduced waste generation, and a lower environmental impact. Fewer possessions translate to fewer distractions and increased happiness within the home. The philosophy encourages the use of convertible or multipurpose furniture, promoting a more efficient and versatile use of space. The kitchen, often prone to becoming a dumping ground for unnecessary items, is another target for minimalism. Advocates recommend buying only essential, locally sourced food items to minimise carbon emissions from transportation. Emphasizing nutrient-dense, environmentally friendly food choices, the philosophy suggests a mindful approach to consumption. In the digital age, minimalism extends to academics, researchers, and readers, urging them to replace printed books with digital versions. This not only saves space but also reduces the pressure on forests by decreasing paper consumption. The philosophy encourages the purchase of durable, reusable products, discouraging reliance on single-use items. It even suggests carrying reusable utensils during travel to minimise pollution from disposable items.
Consumerism, deeply entrenched in modern society, often leads to impulsive and unnecessary purchases.Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases. The philosophy advocates for a holistic approach, encouraging individuals to declutter not only their physical spaces but also their thoughts, memories, and practices. In conclusion, minimalism is more than a trend; it is a way of life that promises dividends when embraced intentionally. Sudha Murty's call for a minimalist lifestyle resonates with the growing desire for simplicity and purpose in an increasingly complex world. By deliberately simplifying and decluttering various aspects of life, individuals can experience the tangible benefits of minimalism, leading to a more fulfilling and mindful existence.

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "conducive" in the context of the passage?

a) haphazard
b) propitious
c) irrelevant
d) tenacious
e) superficial

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

112. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "impulsive" in the context of the passage?

a) extravagant
b) inanimate
c) deliberate
d) spontaneous
e) compulsive

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

113. Which of the following words should fill in the blank taken from the passage?
Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases.

a) ponder
b) amplify
c) elaborate
d) curtail
e) meander

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

114. What is the primary goal of minimalism, as mentioned in the passage?

a) To encourage impulsive purchases and consumerism.
b) To foster a more complex and cluttered existence.
c) To emphasize unnecessary comforts and indulgence.
d) To promote a simplified and intentional approach to life.
e) To discourage individuals from scrutinizing their purchases.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

115. Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?
A. Sudha Murty advocates for a minimalist lifestyle, addressing the importance of intentional living.
B. Bedrooms and kitchens are suggested spaces for minimalist approaches, promoting focus and eco-friendly habits.
C. Minimalism, gaining traction in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals for a contented existence.

a) Only B is true
b) Both A and B are false
c) Only A is true
d) All A, B, and C are false
e) All A, B, and C are true

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

116. In the context of the passage, what is suggested to minimize carbon emissions in the kitchen?

a) Buying only essential, locally sourced food items.
b) Maintaining a diverse range of international food choices.
c) Supporting local farmers by purchasing a variety of items.
d) Using eco-friendly disposable utensils during travel.
e) Emphasizing quantity and variety in food choices.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

117. According to the passage, what are some of the tangible benefits of minimalism mentioned?

a) Accumulating more possessions for a luxurious lifestyle.
b) More economical use of money and resources.
c) Promoting focus and heightened happiness within the home.
d) Enhancing environmental sustainability by generating minimal waste.
e) Fostering intentional and purposeful purchases.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

118. Which of the following best describes the summary of the given passage?

a) Sudha Murty promotes minimalism to create clutter-free bedrooms and encourages mindful food choices, extending it to academics and travel utensils.
b) Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence.
c) The passage discusses the popularity of minimalism, focusing on bedroom decluttering, toy management, and the use of digital resources, with a call for intentional living.
d) Sudha Murty's minimalist lifestyle suggestion involves converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence.
e) The philosophy of minimalism, highlighted by Sudha Murty, mainly focuses on converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

119. Directions: In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.
Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

a) rigorous, superficial
b) comprehensive, thorough
c) irrelevant, perfunctory
d) extraneous, irrelevant
e) exhaustive, superficia

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

120. Directions: In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.
In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

a) standardized, customized
b) customized, uniform
c) generic, individualized
d) personalized, tailored
e) specialized, common

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

121. A survey of certain restaurants was conducted in four restaurants A, B, C and D on 16th November 2019 was collected. It was found that while making a transaction customers used either Debit card or Cash. Out of those making transactions using debit cards some of them (in percentage) getting 10% cash back, while those making transactions using some of them (in percentage) getting 2% cashback.

In Restaurant D the number of people getting 2% cashback for using cash is 450. Find the total number of people who didn't get cashback while using debit cards and cash.

a) 3300
b) 3450
c) 3150
d) 3240
e) 3670

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

122, In Restaurant C on the given day Rs. 200 per person has been made as the cashback while making transactions through debit card and the number of people visiting the restaurant has been 800. What would have been the amount returned by the restaurant as cashback to the people who made transactions using a debit card?

a) Rs.41600
b) Rs. 32400
c) Rs.38400
d) Rs. 25600
e) Rs.42600

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

123. On November 20, 210 people in restaurant A used debit cards and didn't get cashback. On 20th November, what is the difference between the number of people who visited restaurant A and the number of people who paid through cash and didn't get 2% cashback?
(Note: Consider the data for 20th November = 16th November)

a) 426
b) 436
c) 476
d) 546
e) 666

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

124. On the given day If 1200 customers visited restaurant A. How many people used cash and get 2% cashback?

a) 200
b) 190
c) 210
d) 180
e) 120

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

125. If the total number of people visiting restaurant B was 2400 , what would be the difference between the number of people who used debit cards and did not get cashback and those who used cash and got cashback of 2% in restaurant B.

a) 128
b) 157
c) 192
d) 140
e) 143

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

126. A cube of side P is placed inside a sphere of radius R in such a way that all the vertices of cube touch the sphere. Volume of a cone of radius √3R and height H is 11(11/14) unit2.
Find the correct relation between P and H

a) P⁴=√(H² – 25)
b) P²+ H²= 50
c) P²=0.4H
d) 25/4 P⁴= H²e) P²H²= 75

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

127. Find the ratio between the total surface area of the sphere to the lateral surface area of the cube.

a) 44/21
b) 33/14
c) 66/7
d) 22/21
e) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

128. √(x + 45-mn)⁴=5x+Q
One root of the above equation is -10.
Where 'm' and 'n' are the roots of equation: y² - 11y + 30 = 0
Quantity I: Q^4/5
Quantity II: Q^2/2
a) Quantity I > Quantity Il
b) Quantity | ≥ Quantity Il
c) Quantity | < Quantity Il
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity Il
e) Quantity | = Quantity Il or relation cannot be determined.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

129. Directions: The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the total number of questions attempted by 4 students A, B, C and D.
Total number of questions attempted by all the students = 800

In an exam there are three subjects: English, History and Math papers are 120, 60 and 100 respectively. A student can attempt a maximum of 240 questions.
Find the value of (x - y)
Statement (I)
Among all the given four students, the number of questions attempted by B is highest and that attempted by D is lowest. The difference between the number of questions attempted by A and D is 20.
Statement (II)
The number of questions attempted by B is > 220 and that attempted by D is < 190. The value of x and y are distinct positive integer
Which of the above statements are enough to answer the question?

a) I only
b) Both I and II
c) Either I or II
d) II only
e) Neither of the two

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

130. Find the total number of questions attempted by D in the test.
Statement (I)
If the number of questions attempted by D is the highest and the number of questions B attempts is the second highest.
Statement (II)
The difference between the total number of questions attempted by B and D is neither 2 nor 6.

a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I or II
e) Either I or II

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

131. If the number of questions attempted by D in the test is 160 and the number of questions attempted by E is 52 more than the number of questions attempted by B. If the number of questions attempted in history , Math and English are in the ratio 7: 6: 2 respectively by E. Find the difference between the number of questions attempted by E in history and English.

a) 170
b) 180
c) 150
d) 100
e) 120

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

132. In the question, two quantities (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity (I) and Quantity (II) and choose the correct option.
Quantity I:
Quantity II: Value of p²+ q²if q < -1 < p.

a) Quantity I > Quantity lI
b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity lI
c) Quantity I < Quantity lI
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity lI
e) Quantity I = Quantity Il or relation cannot be determined

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

133. Below given are series I such that logic followed in series ll is same as the logic followed in series I.
Series I: 60, 120, 24, 48, 9.6, 19.2
Series II: 100, W, X, Y, Z, 32
If an equation has (W/X) and (Y/10) as its roots, then find that equation.

a) x²- 19/2x + 45/2 = 0
b) x² - 87/4x + 3 = 0
c) x²- 32/5x + 8/25 = 0
d) x² - 23/2x + 45/2 = 0
e) x² - 13x + 40 = 0

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

134. If a series Ill is formed that follows the same logic as that in series I and first term of series Ill is (W - X), find the third term of the series Ill.

a) 64
b) 60
c) 56
d) 48
e) 36

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

135. Find the difference between the value of (W + Z) and (X + Y).

a) 84
b) 108
c) 120
d) 96
e) 72

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

136. A 4 digit odd number X whose unit digit is not 5 when divided by a prime number gives resultant as a three digit number Y whose tens place is 0. Sum of digits of X is 8 while that of Y is 5. Which of the following is correct about X and Y
I. X + Y = 1624
Il. Product of digits of X is equal to its sum of digits
III. Difference between the thousandth place of X and Y is 3.

a) Only I
b) Only I and Il
c) All I, II, III
d) Only Il and III
e) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

137. Directions: The below table shows the four points based on starting/ Ending and distance in km between three points.

End/ Start	A	B	C	D	Vehicle available at point	Speed (km/hr)
A	0	120	X	260	Taxi	40
B	180	0	X	200	Auto	25
C	140	240	0	X	Electric bike	30
D	320	X	420	0	Cycle	12

Note:

(i) 'X' means there is no direct route between two points, in order to reach a point which is directly reachable, the vehicle to go to a reachable point (counting the two points not directly reachable) and then to the desired point.

(ii) If the start point is P and end point is Q, it means the distance while travelling from point P towards point Q is given.

(iii) The distance covered while travelling from point P towards point Q may be different from the distance covered while travelling from point Q towards point P because of the different route taken.

(iv) Any distance can be covered only on the points and not by any vehicle that has come from some other point. Total money spent on points A to B and from points B to D is Rs. 3440. If the fare per km of a taxi is 20% more than that of an auto, what will be the fare from points A to D?

a) Rs.3460

b) Rs.3110

c) Rs.3120

d) Rs.3780

e) Rs.3240

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

138. Find the difference between the distance covered by the person from D to B (via point A) and another person from D to B (via point C).

a) 250
b) 240
c) 220
d) 210
e) 260

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

139. If a person wants to travel from A to C then find the minimum time required to travel this distance.

a) 40 hours
b) 41.5 hours
c) 32 hours
d) 45 hours
e) 31 hours

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

140. Find sum of the minimum possible time taken to cover distance from A to D and maximum possible time to reach D from A.

a) 43/2 hours
b) 35/2 hours
c) 37/2 hours
d) 41/2 hours
e) 45/2 hours

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

141. Directions: The table graph given below shows the data about products sold by five shops on three different days of a week.

Shops	Mon:Tue	Tue	Wed % out of total products sold on three days
A	----	12.5m	x%
B	7:m	----	----
C	4:5	10m	20%
D	----	----	(x-5)%
E	3:4	15m	30%

Note:

1.Difference between total products sold on all three days by C and E is 120.

2. Total products sold by D on all three days is 120.

If the average number of products sold by shop B on all three days is 200 and .If shop B sold 20% of the products sold on Tuesday out of all the three days then find the number of products sold by shop B on Wednesday.

a) 425
b) 575
c) 375
d) 365
e) 275

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

142. If shop A number of products sold on Monday is 60% more than it sold on Tuesday and number of products sold by shop A on Monday and Wednesday is in the ratio of 8:7, then find the number of products sold by D on Tuesday , If D sold a total of 360 products on all three days and 40% of the total products sold by it was on Monday.

a) 106
b) 108
c) 112
d) 116
e) 118

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

143. Find the ratio of the total number of products sold by E on Tuesday and the total number of products sold by C on Wednesday.

a) 8: 5
b) 10: 3
c) 11: 2
d) 7: 4
e) 11: 5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

144. If percentage of products sold by shop D on Monday and Tuesday out of total is 40% and 20% respectively.If (x - 20) % of products sold by the shop B on Wednesday out of total sold in all days .If number of products sold by shop B on Tuesday is 80. Find the number of products sold by B on Wednesday.

a) 95
b) 50
c) 75
d) 90
e) 100

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

145. In shop A two types of products P and Q sold on Tuesday for Rs. 150 and Rs. 120 respectively. If the total amount generated is Rs. 13650. Find the difference between the value of P and Q.

a) 15
b) 10
c) 12
d) 9
e) 14

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

Note:
1. 'n' is a positive integer.
2. Difference between 29 and value of B is X, which has 3 factors excluding X itself and those are 5, A, and 13.
Find the value of B + C.

a) 424
b) 320
c) 314
d) 402
e) 356

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

147. A: (x-2)²= (-3x²) + 2²= 25x - P
B: (10y²- 3²y +2/3)(3)+10y = 0
One factor of first equation is 5.
Find the value of 7P ÷ 21 × 0.2P - 89.

a) P + 3
b) 2P - 3
c) P + 1
d) 2P + 1
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

148. What are the two roots of the equation numbered as B?

a) 2/5. 1/2
b) 1/5, 1/9
c) 2/5, 2/9
d) 1/6, 2/5
e) 1/3, 3/5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

149. What will be value when smaller root of first equation is multiplied by the largest single digit prime number.

a) 15(3/4)
b) 13(3/4)
c) 15(3/7)
d) 15(3/5)
e) 15(3/8)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

150. There are two bags A and B having balls of colours red, blue, green and yellow. They have 3 and 4 coloured balls (not necessarily in same order). Only one of the bags has yellow colour balls. In bag A difference between red and blue colour balls is 6. In both bags, the number of green balls is half of red colour balls. The difference between red and blue balls of bag B is 5. The yellow balls are 3 more than number of green balls in the bag containing yellow balls. Average number of balls in bag A and B are 48 & 37 respectively.
Quantity | : Find the difference between blue balls of A & red balls of bag B.
Quantity lI : Difference between yellow balls of bag containing it and number of green balls in bag B.

a) Quantity | > Quantity lI
b) Quantity | < Quantity lI
c) Quantity | ≥ Quantity lI
d) Quantity | ≤ Quantity lI
e) Quantity | = Quantity lI or relationship cannot be established

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

151. There are four cities A, B, C, and D which are located at different places such that city B is the east of city A, city C is to the south of city B, and city D is to the west of city C and south of city A. Distance between cities B and C is (20p + 100) km and distance between cities C and D is (p²+ 100) km. Total distance from city A to city D (via cities B and C) is 2700 km.
Train Y takes a total 25 hours to cover the distance between A and D (via B and C).
Table given below shows the time taken by three trains X, Y, and Z to cross a pole and a platform P1.

Trains	Time taken (seconds) to cross pole	Time taken (seconds) to cross platform P1
X	10	p
Y	---	q
Z	---	(p+6)

Note: Average of time taken X, Y, Z to cross platform P1 (400m long ) is 30 seconds.

If train X starts from city A at 9:00 AM and train Y starts from city B at 11:00 AM towards each other. The distance between both the trains becomes _________ km at 1:00 PM. Which of the following values will fill the blank?

a) 426 km
b) 416 km
c) 456 km
d) 496 km
e) 446 km

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

152. Find the time taken by train Z to cross the pole if the speed of train X is 20% more than the speed of train Z?

a) 15 secs
b) 16 secs
c) 12 secs
d) 13 secs
e) 10 secs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

153. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
In the following question, two missing number series I and II are given.
Series I: 808, 520, 352, 232, A, 160
Series II: 500, 260, 140, 100, B, 88
Find the average of value of B, B + 12, and B + 36.

a) 106
b) 107
c) 104
d) 108
e) 112

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

154. Which of the following statements) given below is/are correct?
I: A is divisible by 21.
Il: Average of A and 200 is 192.
Ill: A is a prime number.

a) Only I and Ill
b) All I, II, and III
c) Only I
d) Only I and lI
e) Only Il

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None

155. If you multiply a three-digit number by X, the result is 2634. The tens digit of this three-digit numeral equals half the value of 'X'. Which statement about this number is correct?
I: Unit digit is 9.
II: Sum of its digits is 16.
Ill: Is a prime number.

a) Only I and lI
b) Only I and Ill
c) All I, II, and III
d) Only Il
e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

None