NEET REVISION TEST XVIII (01.04.2026)

1. The least count of a screw gauge is 0.01 mm. If the pitch is increased by 80% and number of divisions on the circular scale is reduced by 20%, the new least count will be 

2. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV ). The kinetic energy in joules of the fastest electron emitted is approximately

4. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each radius R, one lying in x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is I, the resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at thei common center is

5. A ball of mass m is used to measure the height of a building by dropping it from the top of it. If the error in the measurement of time is 0.2s and the ball takes 2s to reach the ground, then the error in the calculation of the height will be

1. 1.96 m
2. 3.92 m
3. 9.81 m
4. 19.6 m

6. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height h from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is

7. In ac LCR series circuit connected to an ac source, the supply voltage is V=V₀ sin(100πt+π/6), V_L=40V,V_R=40V, Z=5Ωand R=4Ω. Then match column I and II. All quantities are in SI units

(A) peak current                   (i) 10√2
(B) peak voltage                   (ii) 50√2
(C) X_C                                    (iii) 50
                                              (iv) 1

1. (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv)
2. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i)
3. (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii)
4. (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii)

8. Two concentric circular loops of radii r₁ = 30 cm and r₂ = 50 cm are placed in x-y plane as shown in figure. A current I = 7A is flowing through them in the direction as shown. The net magnetic moment of this system of two circular loop is approximately

9. An ac voltage is given by

How many times will the current becomes zero in 1 sec?

1. 50
2. 100
3. 30
4. 25

10. A canon ball is fired with a velocity 200 m/s at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At the highest point of its flight it explodes into 3 equal fragments, one going vertically upwards with a velocity 100 m/s, the second one falling vertically downwards with a velocity 100 m/s. The third fragment will be moving with a velocity of

1. 100 m/s in the horizontal direction
2. 300 m/s in the horizontal direction
3. 300 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal
4. 200 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal

11. An electromagnetic wave is traveling in free space with electric field amplitude E₀ = 300 V/m.

1. The magnetic field amplitude is B₀=3μT
2. The energy density of the wave is equally shared between electric and magnetic fields.
3. The electric and magnetic fields are parallel to each other and to the direction of propagation.
4. The speed of the wave depends on the amplitude of E₀

12. A spring of constant 100 N/m is stretched by applying equal forces each of magnitude F at the two ends. The energy stored in the spring is 200 J. Now, spring is cut into two equal parts and one of the part is stretched by applying equal forces each of magnitude F at the two ends. The energy stored is

1. 200 J
2. 100 J
3. 400 J
3. 50 J

13. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1−x)M. For a given separation, the value of x for which the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is:

1. 1/2
2. 3/5
3. 1
4. 2

14. A ray of light passes through a prism under the condition of minimum deviation. It is observed that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of the prism. The refractive index of the prism material is:

1. Sin A/2
2. 2Sin A/2
3. Cos A/2
4. 2Cos A/2

15. The refractive indices of flint glass prism for violet, yellow and red colours are 1.7, 1.79 and 1.85 respectively, find dispersive power of the flint glass.

1. 0.19
2. 1.19
3. 0.29
4. 1.29

16. Two coherent waves of equal intensities interfere, the ratio of their maximum to minimum intensity is

1. 0
2. I
3. 4I
4. Infinity

17. A system is taken from state A to state B along two different paths 1 and 2. If the heat absorbed and work done by the system along these two paths are Q₁, Q₂ and W₁, W₂ respectively, then

1. Q₁=Q₂                  
2. W₁=W₂
3. Q₁-W₁=Q₂-W₂                 
4. Q₁+W₁=Q₂+W₂

18. A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. For the image to be real, the focal length should be

1. 10 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 25 cm

19. The graph which represents the variation of the mean kinetic energy of a molecule with temperature t℃ is

20. Out of gravitational, electromagnetic, Vander Waals, electrostatic and nuclear forces; which two are able to provide an attractive force between two neutrons

1. Electrostatic and gravitational
2. Electrostatic and nuclear
3. Gravitational and nuclear
4. Vander Waals attraction

21. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y directions according to x= 3sin(100πt), y= 4sin(100πt).

1. Motion of particle will be ellipse in clockwise direction
2. Motion of particle will be straight line with slope ¾
3. Motion of particle will be SHM with amplitude 5
4. Phase difference between two motions is π/2

22. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will

1. be reduced to half
2. remains the same
3. be doubled
4. increase four times

23. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 revolutions in the first 3 seconds. Assuming a uniform angular acceleration, how many rotations it will make in the next 3 seconds?

1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40

24. If W be the amount of heat produced in the process of charging an uncharged capacitor then the amount of energy stored in it is:

1. 2W
2. W/2
3. W
4. Zero

25. Two sound waves given by the equations y = A sin(122πt) and y = A sin (128πt) pass through a point simultaneously. The number of beats per second is

1. 6
2. 3
3. 4
4. 2

26. In the circuit shown in the figure, the energy stored in 6 μF capacitor will be:


1. 48×10^-6 J
2. 32×10^-6  J
3. 96×10^-6 J
4. 24×10^-6  J

27. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side is ‘a’. Work done in removing a charge – Q from its centre to infinity is

28. A uniform circular disc lies in the XY plane. The X and Z axes lie in the plane of a disc and are mutually perpendicular, while the Y-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the disc through its centre. The moment of inertia of the body about X and Y axes is respectively 30 kgm² and 40 kgm². Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Moment of Inertia about Z-axis is 10 kgm^-2
2. Moment of Inertia about Diameter is 40 kgm^-2
3. Moment of Inertia about an axis in the plane is 20 kgm^-2
4. Moment of Inertia about Z-axis is 70 kgm^-2

29. A current of 1 mA is flowing through a copper wire. How many electrons will pass a given point in one second (e=1.6×10^-19) C)

1. 6.25×10¹⁹
2. 6.25×10¹⁵
3. 6.25×10¹⁸
4. 6.25×10³¹

30. The unit represented by x=1/LC , where L is inductance and C is capacitance is

1. ampere squared
2. meter squared
3. per second squared
4. per second

31. Find the equivalent resistance between the points a and b


1. 2Ω
2. 4Ω
3. 6Ω
4. 8Ω

32. A flywheel of moment of inertia 4 kgm² has an initial angular velocity of 20 rads^-1. A constant torque of 20Nm acts on wheel. The work done by torque in increasing its angular velocity to 80 rads^-1 is

1. 1.2 x 10² J
2. 1.2 x 10³ J
3. 1.2 x 10⁴ J
4. 1.2 x 10⁵ J

33. The potential difference between point A and B is


1. 207 V
2. 407 V
3. 107 V
4. Zero

34. A boy throws a ball into air at 45° from the horizontal to land it on a roof of a building of height h. If the ball attains maximum height in 2 s and lands on the building in 3 s after launch, then value of  is  

1. 25 m
2. 30 m
3. 10 m
4. 15 m

35. For dynamic lift, consider the following
Assertion: The speed of air on the upper surface of the wing is less than the speed on the lower surface
Reason: Bernoulli’s theorem gives us that higher velocity leads to lower pressure

1. Both A and R are true
2. A is true but R is not its correct explanation
3. Both A and R are false
4. A is false but R is true

36. A particle starting from rest at the origin moves along the x-axis such that its velocity is given as v=6√x m/s. Its acceleration in ms^-2 will be

1. 36
2. 0
3. 18
4. 3/√x

37. A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of upper point A from the starting point is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 80 m
2. 50 m
3. 45 m
4. 20 m

38. A flexible chain of mass mhangs between two fixed points at the same level. The inclination of the chain with the horizontal at the two points of support is 30°. Considering the equilibrium of each half of the chain, the tension of the chain at the lowest point is

1. mg
2. 1/2 mg                    
3. √3/2 mg
4. 0

39. A brass wire of length 2 m and radius 1 mm at 27°C is held taut between two rigid supports. Initially it was cooled to a temperature of -43°C creating a tension Tin the wire. The temperature to which the wire has to be cooled in order to increase the tension in it to 1.4T is

1. -86°C
2. – 71°C
3. -67°C
4. -75°C

40. In the figure below, the minimum Zener current will be


1. 9 mA
2. 4 mA
3. 10 mA
4. 5 mA

41. A planet of mass m moves in the xy-plane in an elliptical path. Its position vector at any instant is given by where a, b and w are constants. Its angular momentum  will be

42. The increase in potential energy of a soap bubble to make its diameter 14 cm from 7 cm (in μJ) will be (given surface tension of the bubble to be 0.04 N/m, use π=22/7)

1. 3696
2. 3520
3. 3969
4. 3820

43. A small block of mass m slides down from rest from the top of a frictionless inclined surface, while the inclined plane is moving towards left with constant acceleration a. The angle between the inclined plane and ground is θ and its base length is L .
Assuming that initially the small block is at the top of the inclined plane, the time it takes to reach the lowest point of the inclined plane will be

44. A single slit of width a = 0.2 mm is illuminated successively by two different light sources of λ_A = 600nm and λ_B = 450nm. The diffraction pattern is observed on a screen at distance L= 2m. which of the following statement is correct regarding the central maximum of the two lights?

1. The central maximum is wider for λ_A than λ_B
2. The central maximum is wider for λ_B than λ_A
3. Both central maxima have the same width
4. Central maximum disappears for λ_B because the wavelength is smaller

1. 11q
2. 5q   
3. 3q
4. 2q

CHEMISTRY

46. What is the percent by mass of iodine needed to reduce the freezing point of benzene to 3.5°C? The freezing point and cryoscopic constant of pure benzene are 5.5°C and 5.12 K/m respectively.

1. 5%
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 12%

47. The total number of monobromo derivatives formed by the alkanes with molecular formula C₅H₁₂ is (excluding stereoisomers) .

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 8

48. The compound which undergoes SN1 reaction most rapidly is:

49. What amount of energy (KJ) is released in the combustion of 5.8 g of C₄ H₁₀ (g) 
2C₄ H₁₀ (g)+13O₂ (g)→8CO₂ (g)+10H₂ O(l) ; ΔH=-5756 kJ   

1. – 5756
2. – 575.6
3. – 287.8
4. – 182

50. (NH₄)₂SO₄FeSO₄·6H₂ is

1. Mohr’s salt
2. Alum
3. blue vitriol
4. simple salt

51. One mole of KMnO₄ reacts with

1. 5 moles of oxalic acid
2. 5 moles of oxalic acid
3. 1/5 moles of oxalic acid
4. 5 moles of oxalic acid

52. Which of the following compounds is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

1. Acetone
2. Acetaldehyde
3. Benzaldehyde
4. Acetophenone

53. Which of the following can be prepared only by electrolysis?

1. Cl₂
2. Br₂
3. F₂
4. I₂

54. The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is

55. Which of the following process is used to separate volatile liquid from non-volatile impurities?

1. Distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Differential extraction
4. Crystallisation

56. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.

1. 48.625 kJ mol^-1
2. 354.20 kJ mol^-1
3. 654.35 kJ mol^-1
4. 52.863 kJ mol-1

57. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb value?

1. Benzylamine
2. Aniline
3. P- nitroaniline
4. O- nitroaniline

58. Which of the following has the highest bond energy?

1. O — O
2. S — S
3. Se — Se
4. Te — Te

59. Secondary structure of a protein refers to ____________.

1. mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
2. three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain
3. linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
4. regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

60. The major product of the following reaction is

61. The value of  for NH₄ Cl, NaOH and NaCl are 129.8, 258.1 and 126.4 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1 Calculate   for NH₄ OH solution in ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1.

1. 215.5
2. 251.5 
3. 244.
4. 261.5

62. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 30 minutes. Calculate the specific reaction rate of the reaction.

1. 0.342 min
2. 48.62 min      
3. 0.023 min
4. 0.048 min

63. Match the reagent from Column I which on reaction with CH₃-CH=CH₂ gives some product given in Column II as per the codes given below:


1. A-4, B-1, C-5, D-3, E-2
2. A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-3
3. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-3, E-1
4. A-2, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4

64. Which of the following will give a yellow or orange ppt. with 2,4 DNP?
(i) Propanal (ii) Propanone (iii)  Propanoic acid  IV) Glucose

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) (ii)and (IV)
4. (i), (ii) (iii) and (IV)

65. The Nernst equation E = E° – RT/nF ln Q indicates that the Q will be equal to equilibrium constant K_c when

1. E = E°
2. RT/nF = 1       
3. E = zero
4. E° = 0

66. The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 4 g in 100 g of water at 25°C. If 2.0 g, 4.0 g and 6.0 g of the salt added to 100 g of water at 25°C, in system X, Y and Z, the vapour pressure would be in the order

1. X < Y < Z
2. X > Y > Z
3. Z > X = Y
4. X > Y = Z

67. If the electronegativity difference between two atoms A and B is 2.0, then the percentage of covalent character in the molecule is

1. 54%
2. 46%   
3. 23%
4. 72%

68. What will be the pH of 1 × 10⁻⁴ M H₂SO₄ solution?

1. 10.4
2. 3.70
3. 3
4. 13

69. What volume of carbon monoxide at 2 atm and 273°C is required in order to produce 5.6 g of metal by the reduction of Ferric Oxide?

1. 5.6 L
2. 4.25 L
3. 6.72 L
4. 3.36 L

70. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved in 40 g H₂O to give 20% by weight of solution?

1. 15 g
2. 11.5 g
3. 10 g
4. 31.5 g

71. Which facts are correctly represented?

1. Bond length : NO⁺ < N0²⁺ No^–
2. Bond order : NO⁺ > NO²⁺ = NO > NO^–
3. Bond length : NO⁺ < NO²⁺ = NO < No^–
4. Bond order : NO⁺ > NO²⁺ > NO > NO^–

72. How many species among the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(i) But-2-ene
(ii) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(iii) 1,2-dichloroethene
(iv) 1-phenyl propene
(v) 3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(vi) 2-methyl propene

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

73. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.
A. n-butane B. 2-methylbutane
C. n-pentane
D. 2, 2-dimethylpropane

1. A > B > C > D
2. B > C > D >A
3. D > C > B > A
4. C > B > D > A

74. A particular reaction at 27 ∘ C for which Δ H > 0 and Δ S > 0 is found to be spontaneous. The reaction may proceed non-spontaneously

1. the temperature is decreased
2. the temperature is increased
3. the temperature is kept constant
4. the temperature is irrelevant.

75. Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10% by mass of glucose, 5% by mass of urea and 1% by mass of KCl. (K_f (H₂O) = 1.86 K/m)

1. −2.25°C
2. 0°C
3. −3.03°
4. −1.63°C

76. Consider the following reaction sequence

Product C is

77. In a laboratory, say you make an aqueous solution of Ni²⁺ containing [Ni(H2O)₆]²⁺ and its magnetic moment was found to be 2.83 BM. When Ammonia is added to the solution, the magnetic moment of the solution

1. will remain same
2. increases from 2.83
3. decreases from 2.83
4. cannot be predicted theoretically

78. The EAN of metal atoms in [Fe(CO)₂ (NO₊)₂ ] and Co₂ (CO)₈respectively are:

1. 34, 36
2. 36, 34
3. 36, 36
4. 34 ,34

79. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO₄ and H₂SO₄?

80. In the system X + 2Y ⇌ Z, the equilibrium concentrations are,[X] = 0.06 mol L⁻¹, [Y] = 0.12 mol L⁻¹, [Z] = 0.216 mol L⁻¹. Find the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

1. 250
2. 500
3. 125
4. 273

81. Which of the following radial distribution graphs corresponds l = 2 for the H – atom?

82. A transition metal exists in its highest oxidation state. It is expected to behave as

1. a chelating agent
2. a central metal in a coordination compound
3. an oxidizing agent
4. a reducing agent.

83. If the threshold frequency of a metal for photoelectric effect is v₀, then which of the following will not happen?

1. If frequency of the incident radiation is v₀, thenkinetic energy of the electrons ejected is zero.
2. If frequency of incident radiation is v, the kinetic energy of the electrons ejected will be hv – hv₀.
3. If frequency is kept same at v, but intensity is increased, the number of electrons ejected will increase.
4. If frequency of incident radiation is further increased, the number of photoelectrons ejected will increase.

84. How much electricity in terms of faraday is required to produce 100 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?

1. 1 F
2. 2 F                  
3. 3 F
4. 5 F

85. Final product (B) obtained in the following sequence of reactions is

(1) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
(2) CH₂ = CH – CH₃
(3) CH₂ = CH – CH₂-CH₃
(4) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

86. The charge required for the oxidation of one mole of Mn₃O₄ into MnO₄^2- in presence of alkaline medium is

1. 289,500 C
2. 96,500 C            
3. 10 x 96,500 C
4. 193,000 C

87. For the reaction of type A → 2B, match the column I with column II.


1. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
2. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
3. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
4. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

88. Which of the following metals does not show inert pair effect?

1. Tl
2. Ga
3. In
4. Al

89. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost shell, and that of B has six electrons in the outermost orbit. The formula of the compound formed by these two elements will be

1. A₃B₆
2. A₂B₃   
3. A₂B 
4. A₃B₂

90. Which of the following expressions is correct?

1. v = a (z – b)
2. v² = a (z – b)²
3. v = a² (z – b)²
4. v² = a² (z – b)²

91. Assertion (A): Insulin decreases blood glucose levels.
      Reason (R): Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver and muscles. Options:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

92. Which of the following acts as an immunosuppressive agent used in organ transplantation?

1. Cyclosporin A from Trichoderma polysporum
2. Statins from Monascus purpureus
3. Penicillin from Penicillium notatum
4. Lactic acid from Lactobacillus

93. Match cardiac structures with functions:

Correct combination:

1. P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
2. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
3. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
4. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

94. Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with —

1. Leguminous roots
2. Wheat roots
3. Algae
4. Bryophytes

95. Which muscle type has maximum number of mitochondria and why?

1. Skeletal muscle – rapid contraction
2. Smooth muscle – slow contraction
3. Cardiac muscle – continuous activity
4. All have equal mitochondria

96. Mycorrhiza helps the host plant by —

1. Fixing nitrogen directly
2. Absorbing phosphorus from soil
3. Increasing CO₂ fixation
4. Degrading cellulose

97. Assertion (A): Gene therapy is commonly performed on somatic cells.
      Reason (R): Changes in somatic cells are heritable.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

98. In competitive inhibition, increasing substrate concentration can overcome inhibition because:

1. Inhibitor binds irreversibly to enzyme
2. Km increases but Vmax remains same
3. Inhibitor and substrate compete for active site
4. Vmax decreases

99. Assertion (A): Damage to the hypothalamus can affect hunger and thirst.
       Reason (R): Hypothalamus acts as an endocrine gland only.

1. Both A and R are true, R correctly explains A
2. Both A and R are true, R does not correctly explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

100. A protein shows a complete loss of enzymatic activity when heated to a high temperature, but its primary structure remains unchanged. Which interaction is MOST directly disrupted during this process?

1. Peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
2. Covalent disulfide bonds between cysteine residues
3. Hydrogen bonds stabilizing secondary structure
4. Ionic bonds between substrate and active site during catalysis

101. A dormant seed fails to germinate even under favourable conditions. Which hormonal treatment is most likely to break dormancy?

1. Increased abscisic acid
2. Increased ethylene
3. Increased gibberellin
4. Increased cytokinin

102. β-pleated sheets in proteins are stabilized by:

1. H-bonds parallel to backbone
2. H-bonds perpendicular to backbone
3. Disulfide bonds
4. Ionic bonds

103. A species occupies a much narrower range of resources in nature than it can tolerate in laboratory conditions. This difference is best explained by:

1. Abiotic stress
2. Competitive exclusion
3. High biotic potential
4. Reduced carrying capacity

104. Insertion of foreign DNA in lacZ gene results in:

1. Blue colonies on X-gal medium
2. White colonies on X-gal medium
3. No colony formation
4. Increased β-galactosidase activity

105. Which biomolecule has maximum diversity in living systems?

1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Lipids
4. Nucleic acids

106. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envlope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

1. Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
2. Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
3. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast.
4. Formation of the contractile and transcription from chromosome.

107. The prosthetic group in hemoglobin is:

1. Globin
2. Heme
3. FAD
4. NAD+

108. Which statements are correct?
1. Evolution always leads to increasing complexity
2. Natural selection acts on phenotypes
3. Mutations are always harmful
4. Gene flow can introduce new alleles
Options:

1. 2 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. All correct

109. The present biodiversity crisis differs from previous mass extinctions mainly because it is:

1. Restricted to animals
2. Caused by extraterrestrial events
3. Driven by a single species
4. Occurring over millions of years

110. In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, at [S] = 10 Km, % Vmax achieved is:

1. 10%
2. 50%
3. 91%
4. 99%

111. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Insertion of foreign DNA can inactivate antibiotic resistance genes
2. pBR322 contains only one selectable marker
3. It is a plasmid vector
4. It can replicate independently

112. Open vascular bundles in stems contain:

1. No cambium
2. Fascicular cambium
3. Interfascicular cambium
4. Only phloem cambium

113. Assertion (A): DNA ligase cannot join blunt ends efficiently.
       Reason (R): Blunt ends lack hydrogen bonding between complementary bases.
 
1. Both A and R are true, R explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

114. Bulliform cells are found in:

1. Dicot leaves
2. Monocot leaves
3. Dicot stems
4. Root epidermis

115. Which are correct?
1. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by dopamine
2. Growth hormone is highest during deep sleep
3. TSH directly stimulates thyroid hormone release independent of iodine
4. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion
Options:

1. 1, 2, 4
2. 1, 3, 4
3. 2, 3, 4
4. All correct

116. In a population, frequency of allele A = 0.7. Find frequency of heterozygous individuals.

1. 0.42
2. 0.49
3. 0.21
4. 0.09

117. Assertion (A): Genetic drift is more significant in small populations.
       Reason (R): Smaller populations have lower mutation rates.

1. Both A and R are true, R explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

118. Priestley’s experiment showed that plants release a gas only after:

1. 24 hours of light exposure
2. Being kept in dark for several hours
3. Continuous CO₂ supply
4. Addition of mineral nutrients

119. Correct sequence of hormone action:
1. Second messenger formation
2. Receptor binding
3. Gene expression
4. Protein synthesis

1. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
2. 2 → 3 → 1 → 4
3. 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
4. 1 → 2 → 4 → 3

120. Jan Ingenhousz proved that O2 evolution occurs only from:

1. Non-green parts in dark
2. Green parts in sunlight
3. Roots in water
4. Stems during night

121. In myelinated neurons, conduction is faster because:

1. Continuous depolarization
2. Increased Na⁺ leakage
3. Saltatory conduction
4. Absence of nodes

122. In variegated leaf experiment, starch forms only in:

1. White areas exposed to light
2. Green areas exposed to light
3. All areas in dark
4. Yellow areas only

123. Which of the following does NOT contribute to Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium disturbance?

1. Gene migration
2. Genetic drift
3. Random mating
4. Natural selection

124. T.W. Engelmann’s experiment used bacteria to show action spectrum peaks at:

1. Green and yellow light
2. Blue and red light
3. Violet and orange light
4. UV and infrared

125. A plant with genotype AaBb is test-crossed. But genes A and B show complete linkage (no crossing over). What will be the phenotypic ratio?

1. 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1
2. 1 ∶ 1
3. 3 ∶ 1
4. 1: 2: 1

126. Cornelius van Niel’s work on bacteria showed photosynthesis involves:

1. H₂O → O₂ always
2. H₂S as H-donor in bacteria
3. CO₂ reduction without light
4. O₂ evolution from sulfur

127. Which of the following is absent in frog?

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system
3. Coronary circulation
4. Lymphatic system

128. tRNA has anticodon and carries:

1. Specific amino acid
2. mRNA
3. DNA template
4. Ribosome subunit

129. Identify the correct sequence at synapse:

1. Ca²⁺ entry
2. Vesicle fusion
3. Neurotransmitter binding
4. Action potential arrival

1. 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
2. 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
3. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
4. 4 → 1 → 3 → 2

130. Lac operon is inducible because:

1. Repressor always binds operator
2. Lactose inactivates repressor
3. Glucose activates it
4. CAP always present

131. A population suddenly decreases due to a natural disaster, and surviving individuals have different allele frequencies than original population. This is:

1. Gene flow
2. Founder effect
3. Bottleneck effect
4. Adaptive radiation

132. If complete oxidation of 1 glucose yields 36 ATP, how many ATP from 1 glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)?

1. 18
2. 19
3. 17
4. 20

133. Which of the following cells can transform into macrophages?

1. Neutrophils
2. Basophils
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils

134. RQ = 0.9 typically indicates respiration of:

1. Fats primarily
2. Mixed carbohydrates + proteins
3. Organic acids
4. Glucose

135. Match Column I and II

Options:

1. A-3, B-2, C-1
2. A-2, B-1, C-3
3. A-1, B-2, C-3
4. A-3, B-1, C-2

136. Succinyl CoA synthetase produces GTP equivalent to:

1. 1 ATP
2. 2 ATP
3. 3 ATP
4. 4 ATP

137. In frog, if renal portal system is removed, which is MOST affected?

1. Oxygen supply to muscles
2. Filtration of blood from hind limbs
3. Liver metabolism
4. Lung ventilation

138. Which Krebs cycle intermediate is structurally similar to amino acid glutamate?

1. Citrate
2. α-Ketoglutarate
3. Succinate
4. Oxaloacetate

139. An organism is unicellular, lacks a cell wall in some stages, shows heterotrophic nutrition, and reproduces by binary fission. However, it possesses membrane-bound organelles. The most appropriate classification is:

1. Monera
2. Cannot be classified
3. Fungi
4. Protista

140. What is Bohr effect in oxygen dissociation curve?

1. Shift of the curve downward due to increase in pCO2
2. Shift of the curve downward due to increase in pO2
3. Shift of the curve upward due to decrease in pCO2
4. Shift of the curve upward due to increase in pO2

141. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Paired appendages are absent in division Gnathostomata
2. Notochord runs the entire length of the body in cephalochordates
3. Hemichordates have segmented wornlike body
4. Reptiles have external ear opening called tympanum

142. A secretory protein synthesized in a eukaryotic cell undergoes several modifications before being released. If the Golgi apparatus is experimentally inhibited, which of the following will most likely occur?

1. Protein synthesis stops immediately
2. Proteins accumulate in rough endoplasmic reticulum
3. Proteins are directly secreted without modification
4. Lysosomes increase their activity

143. The correct pathway of milk in the mammary glands of human is

1. Mammary lobe – mammary duct – ampulla – areola
2. Mammary alveoli – mammary duct – ampulla – lactiferous duct
3. Mammary duct – mammary alveoli – ampulla – lactiferous duct
4. Mammary duct – ampulla – mammary lobe – nipple

144. A fungus is observed to have:
i. Septate mycelium
ii. Asexual reproduction by conidia
iii. Sexual reproduction producing ascospores within asci
If mutation prevents formation of sexual structures, which change is most likely?

1. Complete loss of reproduction
2. Continued reproduction via conidia
3. Shift to basidiospore formation
4. Formation of zoospores instead

145. One of the grounds for termination of pregnancy (MTP) is

1. The fetus is female
2. The baby will be born in a poor family
3. The continuation of pregnancy would be grave physical injury for the mother
4. If two registered medical practitioners gave permission for MTP

146. A batch of dormant cereal seeds is divided into three groups:
Group A: Treated with abscisic acid
Group B: Treated with gibberellin
Group C: Treated with both ABA and GA in equal concentrations
After incubation under optimal conditions, which observation is most likely?

1. Only A germinates
2. Only B germinates
3. B shows maximum germination, C shows reduced germination
4. All groups germinate equally

147. ANF mechanism is activated when

1. GFR reduces
2. Blood flow to the atria of the heart increases
3. Na+ concentration of the body decline
4. Diuresis occurs in the body

148. A mutation disrupts the polymerisation of tubulin proteins in a cell. Which of the following processes will be most severely affected?

1. Muscle contraction
2. Chromosome movement during mitosis and cilia movement
3. Cell wall formation
4. Lipid synthesis in smooth ER

149. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character


1. The female parent is heterozygous
2. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
3. The trait under study could not be colour blindness
4. The male parent is homozygous dominant

150. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeletal system?

1. Sternum
2. Atlas
3. Skull
4. Coxal bone

151. A critically endangered plant produces recalcitrant seeds (cannot be dried or stored). Which conservation method would be most effective?

1. Seed bank
2. Botanical garden
3. Cryopreservation of tissues
4. Wildlife sanctuary

152. PMNL of WBC is a type of which barrier?

1. Cytokine barrier
2. Cellular barrier
3. Physical barrier
4. Physiological barrier

153. In a fern, if the haploid number is 8, how many chromosomes would be present in: zygote, rhizoid, spore mother cell, and oosphere respectively?

1. 16, 8, 16, 8
2. 8, 8, 16, 16
3. 16, 16, 8, 8
4. 8, 16, 8, 16

154. Select the incorrect match from the given options

1. Radiotherapy – tumor cells are irradiated lethally
2. Chemotherapy – drugs are used to kill cancerous cells
3. MRI – detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue
4. Computed tomography – uses X-rays to generate a two-dimensional image of the internal organs

155. The characters given below are shown by
i. Extracellular and intracellular digestion
ii. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of organization
iii. Bisexual, external fertilization and indirect development
iv. No asexual reproduction
v. Presence of 8 comb plates

1. Ctenophora
2. Porifera
3. Cnidaria
4. Rotifers

156. Which of the following statements about the role of ADH in water balance is correct?
 
1. ADH increases water permeability of the collecting ducts.
2. ADH decreases water reabsorption in the nephron.
3. ADH is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
4. ADH promotes sodium excretion in urine

157. Which of the given organisms reproduce asexually by non-motile spores?

1. Laminaria
2. Polysiphonia
3. Chara
4. Volvox

158. In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through:

1. Rhizome
2. Tuber
3. Bulbils
4. Corm

159. The correct sequence of phases in the menstrual cycle is

1. Menstrual phase, follicular phase and luteal phase
2. Menstrual phase, luteal phase and secretory phase
3. Menstrual phase, proliferative phase and secretory phase
4. Both 1 and 3

160. Match the following diseases with their treatment


1. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
2. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
3. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

161. If a disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to the male progeny, the disease is

1. Sex-linked dominant
2. Sex-linked recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. Autosomal recessive

162. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the given figures?


1. Both the organisms belong to Kingdom Protista.
2. Both move with the help of flagella.
3. A shows heterotrophic as well as autotrophic mode of nutrition, while ‘B’ shows only heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
4. Both (1) and (3)

163. Observe the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Respiration is most efficient in insects among the invertebrates
Statement II: In insects, air is directly carried to the cells by tracheoles

1. Both statement I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Only statement I is correct
4. Only statement II is correct

164. A floral diagram reveals:
i. Sepals and petals arranged alternately
ii. Stamens equal in number to petals and epipetalous
iii. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary
iv. Ovules attached to a central axis, ovary divided into two locules
v. Flower is actinomorphic and bisexual
Which family does this diagram best represent?

1. Fabaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Asteraceae

165. Choose the correct statements from the following statements
i. Progesterone – implantation and maintenance of pregnancy
ii. Inner cell mass – group of cells that would differentiate as zygote
iii. Cleavage – mitotic division of zygote
iv. Luteinizing hormone – oogenesis
v. Implantation – embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium
vi. Prolactin – lactation after birth
vii. Oxytocin – uterine contraction during labour

1. i, ii, iv, vi
2. i, ii, iv, v, vii
3. i, iii, v, vi, vii
4. iii, iv, v, vi

166. Pteridophytes are evolutionarily more advanced than bryophytes because:

1. Both gametophyte and sporophyte are photosynthetic and independent in pteridophytes, whereas bryophytes have a dominant sporophyte
2. Sporophyte is dominant and independent in pteridophytes, while in bryophytes it remains attached and dependent on the gametophyte
3. Gametophyte is dominant in pteridophytes but reduced in bryophytes
4. Sporophyte is absent in bryophytes but present in pteridophytes

167. Slogan for a happy and small family is

1. Hum do hamare chaar
2. Hum do hamare ek
3. Hum do hamare do
4. None of these

168. Which of the following is not observed during contraction of muscle fibre?

1. A band retain the length
2. Shortening of sarcomere
3. I band gets reduced
4. H zone retains the length

169. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?

1. Metagenesis
2. Gastrovascular cavity
3. Diploblastic
4. Cnidoblast

170. Select the incorrect statement

1. Heroin is a depressant which slows down body functions
2. Morphine has an effect on the neuromuscular system
3. Cocaine interferes with the transport of dopamine
4. Morphine is a powerful painkiller

171. Assertion (A): During the menstrual cycle, ovulation takes place approximately on the 14th day.
      Reason (R): Rapid secretion of LH (luteinizing hormone) in the middle of the cycle induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the ovum.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

172. Assertion (A): Immunosuppressants should be avoided in organ transplant patients.
         Reason (R): These drugs make the body highly susceptible to a number of infectious diseases

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

173. The clavicle articulates with the scapula in the

1. Glenoid cavity
2. Acetabulum
3. Acromion
4. Pubic symphysis

174. In which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle are histone proteins predominantly synthesized, a crucial event for DNA packaging during cell division?

1. During G2 stage of prophase
2. During entire prophase
3. During S-phase
4. During telophase

175. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits.

Choose the correct answer from the option below:

1. (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iii)
2. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
3. (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii)
4. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii)

176. Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertation (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of Moss is protonema stage.
Reason (R): Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

177. Which type of modification is seen in the stem of limited growth?

1. Phylloclades
2. Cladodes
3. Stem Thorns
4. Stem tendrils

178. Which of the following is true regarding the post-mitotic gap phase of the cell cycle?

1. During this phase the cell is metabolically active.
2. Replication of DNA occurs.
3. The cell grows continuously but does not replicate
4. Both (A) and (C)

179. Phyllode is present in

1. Euphorbia
2. Asparagus
3. Opuntia
4. Australian Acacia

180. Which of the following correctly represents the Z-scheme of electron transport?

1. PS II → PS I → NADP⁺
2. PS I → PS II → NADP⁺
3. PS II → Cyt b₆f → PS I → NADP⁺
4. PS I → Cyt b₆f → PS II → NADP⁺