NEET REVISION IV TEST (04.02.2026)

Written by

C VANLALSANGA8014320744

in

Welcome to your NEET REVISION IV TEST (04.02.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

PHYSICS

1. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, light of wavelength, ʎ=600nmis used and the first minimum is observed at an angle, θ=30°.The width of the slit (a) is:

1. 1.2 μm
2. 1.5 μm
3. 1.0 μm
4. 1.8 μmDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

1. 200√2units
2. 200 units
3. 300 units
4. zeroDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

3. A ball with mass m, radius r, and density p is dropped into a liquid with density p₀. After a period of motion, the speed of the ball becomes constant, equal to v₀. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

4. Express the result of the calculation to 3 significant figures:
2×0.536+0.0050+2.100

1. 3.177
2. 3.18
3. 3.19
4. 3.2Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

5. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and momentum of an object are 1% and 2% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of kinetic energy of the object will be:

1. 1%
2. 3%
3. 4%
4. 5%

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

6. Select the correct option based on the statements:
Statement I: The magnetic field of a circular loop at very far away point on the axial line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.
Statement II: The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of the distance from the centre on the axial line.

1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

7. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

1. adiabatic
2. isochoric
3. isobaric
4. isothermal

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

8. A 200g ball is thrown upward by applying constant upward force (F) over a distance of 50 cm and then releasing it; the ball ascends to a height of 10m after it is released. The work done by the applied force F is: (take g=10m/s²
1. 20 J
2. 19 J
3. 21 J
4. 42 J

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

9. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index = 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of a refractive index of 1.7. The focal length of the combination is:

1. -20 cm
2. -25 cm
3. -50 cm
4. 50 cm

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

10. What tension must a rope exert to support a precious painting with a mass, mon a smooth, frictionless surface inclined at an angle, θ with respect to the horizontal ground?

1. mg
2. mg sinθ
3. mg cosθ
4. mg tanθ

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

The wave is travelling along:

1. the positive -axis
2. the negative -axis
3. the positive -axis
4. the negative -axis

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

12. A transformer has an efficiency of 90% working on 200V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil, respectively, are:

1. 300 V, 15 A
2. 450, 15 A
3. 450 V, 13.5 A
4. 600 V, 15 A

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

13. The magnetic field due to a current carrying loop of radius 3 cm at a point on its axis at a distance 4 cm from the center is 54 𝜇 What will be its value at the centre of the loop?

1. 250 𝜇T
2. 150 𝜇T
3. 125 𝜇T
4. 75 𝜇T

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

14. A particle of mass m undergoes SHM given by: x=A sinωtwhere the symbols used are in their standard notation. The kinetic energy (K)is given by the expression:
(K₀,K₁ are positive constants)

1. K₀+ K₁ cos2ωt
2. K₀– K₁ cos2ωt
3. K₀+ K₁ sin2ωt
4. K₀– K₁ sin2ωt

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

15. Consider the following statements:
a. The universal law of gravitation is an assumption or hypothesis.
b. The universal law of gravitation can be proved.
c. The universal law of gravitation can be verified.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (b) and (c) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (c) only

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

16. During a β-decay, fast electrons are found to have been emitted. These electrons come from:

1. the outermost atomic shell
2. the innermost atomic shell
3. the conduction band
4. the nucleus

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

17. A point charge qis placed on the x-axis at x=a; an identical charge is placed on the y-axis at y=a. At the origin is placed a charge (-2q). The dipole moment of the charge distribution is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

18. The speed of sound in a gas at temperature T is v_s, while the RMS speed of its molecules is v_r. The ratio of specific heats (C_p/C_v)is equal to:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

19. For which one of the following Bohr models is not valid?

1. Singly ionised helium atom (He⁺)
2. Deuteron atom.
3. Singly ionised neon atom (Ne⁺)
4. Hydrogen atom.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

20. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of charge, q and energy stored, U in a capacitor?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

21. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current I will be:

1. 0.75 A ;
2. 1 A
3. 1.5 A
4. 0.5 A

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

22. Two particles are projected in the air at the same speed uat an angle θ₁and θ₂ (θ₁ and θ2 are acute angles) to the horizontal, respectively. If the maximum height reached by the first particle is greater than that of the second, then which of the following is correct?
(T₁ and T₂ are the times of flight of the two particles respectively)

1. θ₁>θ₂
2. θ₁=θ₂
3. T₁<T₂
4. T₁=T₂

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

23. The ratio of the longest wavelengths corresponding to the Lyman and Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is:

1. 3/23
2. 7/29
3. 9/31
4. 5/27

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

24. Identical diodes D₁,D₂ are connected in parallel with resistances as shown in the figure.

Here V_A>V_B , and the resistance R₁>R₂As the voltage V_AB is increased:

1. i₁=i₂ 2. i₁>i₂
3. i₁<i₂
4. i₁=0, i₂ = 0

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

25. In a double-slit experiment, when the light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (μ_water=4/3)

1. 0.1°
2. 0.266°
3. 0.15°
4. 0.05°

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

26. Which, of the following solid substances, will most likely show the photoelectric effect easily?

1. Potassium
2. Rubber
3. Plastic
4. Solid hydrogen

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

27. The capacitors are initially uncharged. The three points A, B, C are maintained at potentials V_A=4V, V_B=1V and V_C=1V. The potential at X,V_X=

1. 2 V
2. 1.5 V
3. 3 V
4. 0.5 V

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

28. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field. After passing through a layer of lead, it loses half of its kinetic energy. How does the radius of its curvature change?

1. It becomes twice the original radius.
2. It becomes √2 times the original radius.
3. It becomes half the original radius.
4. It becomes 1/√2 times the original radius.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

29. In a region, the potential is represented by V=(x,y,z)=6x-8xy-8y+6yz, where V is in volts and 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at a point (1,1,1) is:

1. 6√5 N
2. 30N
3. 24N
4. 4√35 N

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

30. Two cars A & B move from town X to town Y: both accelerating uniformly from rest to a maximum speed of 40 km/h and immediately, decelerating uniformly to a stop at Y. The distance between X & Y is 120 km. For car A, the acceleration & deceleration have the same magnitude; for car B, the acceleration is twice the deceleration. The times taken by A & B are t_A & t_B. Then:

1. t_A=2t_B 2. t_B=2t_A
3. 3t_A=2t_B4. t_A=t_B

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

31. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 10²² free electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for free electrons when 10 A current flows through the wire will be: (Given, charge on electron = 1.6×10^-19 C)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

32. A steel wire of length 10.0 m is stretched by 1.0 mm. The cross-sectional area of the wire is 4mm², and Young’s modulus of the wire is 2.0×10¹¹ N/m². The energy density of the wire is:

1. 2×10³ J/m³
2. 5×10³ J/m³
3. 10³ J/m³
4. 5×10² J/m³

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

33. Light, having a wavelength equal to the first line of the Balmer series, is incident onto a metal of work-function 2eV. The kinetic energy of the ejected electron is:

1. 1.4 eV
2. 0.5 eV
3. 0.1 eV
4. No electrons are ejected

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

34. A block is suspended from a spring and causes an extension of 2 cm. It is now imparted a kinetic energy E so that the block rises up by exactly 2 cm. If the block were to be given the same kinetic energy upward, without being attached to a spring, it would rise up by:

1. 1 cm
2. 2 cm
3. 4 cm
4. 8 cm

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

35. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the equation x=8+12t-t³ where 𝑥 is in meter and 𝑡 in seconds. The retardation of the particle, when its velocity becomes zero, is:

1. 24 ms^-22. Zero
3. 6 ms^-2
4. 12 ms^-2

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

36. Point masses m₁ and m₂, are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length 𝐿 and negligible mass. The rod is set into rotation about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of a point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity ω₀is minimum is given by:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

37. Two spherical bodies of masses 𝑀 and 5𝑀 and radii 𝑅 and 2𝑅 are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12𝑅. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before the collision is:

1. 2.5 R
2. 4.5 R
3. 7.5R
4. 1.5 R

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

38. In an experiment, four quantities 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and 𝑑 are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows:

Percentage error in P is:

1. 10%
2. 7%
3. 4%
4. 14%

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

39. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, a straight line of length 𝐿 is drawn on the inside part of the objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is 𝑙. The magnification of the telescope is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

40. An inductor (L) and a resistor (R) are connected in series and a battery is connected, as shown in the figure. Once the current becomes steady, the power in the resistance is P_R and the energy stored in the inductor is U_L. The switch is suddenly (and smoothly) toggled to the position B allowing the inductor to discharge. The time in which the energy stored becomes 1/2 its initial value is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

41. A 20 cm-long capillary tube is dipped in water, causing the water to rise to a height of 8 cm within the tube. If this setup is then placed inside an elevator that is in free fall, what will be the new height of the water column in the capillary tube?

1. 8 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 4 cm
4. 20 cm

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

42. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is:

1. <2.8×10^-10 m
2. <2.8×10^-9 m
3. ≥2.8×10^-9 m
4. ≥2.8×10^-12 m

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

43. Assume that the rope and pulley are ideal, and that the system is frictionless. For what value of 𝑚 will the 4 kg remain at rest?

1. 4 kg
2. 8 kg
3. 2 kg
4. 1 kg

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

44. The charge flowing through a resistance 𝑅 varies with time 𝑡 as Q=at-bt², where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are positive constants. The total heat produced in 𝑅 is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

45. The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27°C and 1 atm is 200 m/s. The root mean square speed of molecules of the gas at 127°Cand 2 atm will be:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

CHEMISTRY

46. 16 g of an organic substance was heated in a carius tube and the sulphuric acid formed was precipitated as- BaSO₄ with BaCl₂. The weight of the dry BaSO₄ was 0.35 g. What is the % of sulphur in the compound?

1. 36.11
2. 30.04
3. 25.12
4. 42.12

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

47. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

48. A metal M forms a compound M₂HPO₄. The formula of the metal sulphate is:

1. M₂SO₄2. MSO₄3. M(SO₄)₂ 4. M₂(SO₄)₃

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

49. Match the following reactions in Column-I to the correct enthalpy associated with them given in Column-II:

Choose the correct option from the following:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

50. What is the oxidation state of a phosphorus atom in hypophosphoric acid?

1. +3
2. +4
3. +5
4. +3

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

51. The structure of compound B in the following reaction is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

52. A monochromatic infrared range finder of power 1 milli watt emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm in 0.1 second. The number of photons emitted in 0.1 second is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

53. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

54. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): An atomic orbital is monocentric, whereas a molecular orbital is polycentric.
Reason (R): An electron in an atomic orbital is influenced by one nucleus whereas in a molecular orbital, it is influenced by two or more nuclei depending upon the number of atoms in a molecule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

55. What is the molecular mass of ‘X’, if its 2% (w/v) solution exhibits the same osmotic pressure as a 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose?

1. 570 g/mol
2. 205.2 g/mol
3. 171 g/mol
4. None of these

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

56. A carbonyl compound reacts with HCN followed by hydrolysis to give lactic acid. The carbonyl compound is:

1. HCHO
2. CH₃CHO
3. CH₃ COCH₃
4. CH₃ CH₂ CHO

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

57. Consider the following reaction:
The number of sp² hybridized carbons in the compound ‘B’ are:

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 5

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

58. Which of the following representations of ethane depicts its non-staggered conformation?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

59. The vapour pressure of a solution is 2% less than the vapour pressure of pure water. The molality of the solution is approximately

1. 0.92
2. 1.11
3. 1.26
4. 1.52

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

60. Consider the following graph:

The point that represents the most probable kinetic energy is:

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. None of the above

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

61. Identify the incorrect statements regarding the importance of coordination compounds in biological systems.

1. Vitamin B-12 used to prevent anaemia, is a complex compound of zinc.
2. Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron.
3. Chlorophyll is the green pigment of plants and contains magnesium.
4. All of the above are correct.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

63. Standard reduction potentials of the half-reactions are given below:

The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, are:

1. Br₂and Cl^–
2. Cl₂and Br^–
3. Cl₂and I^–
4. F₂and I^–Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

64. Match the coordination complexes in List-I with their corresponding hybridisation in List-II and mark the correct option:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

66. Determine the cell constant of a conductivity cell containing a 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K. The given data includes a resistance of 1750 Ω and a conductivity of 0.152 ×10^-3 S cm^-1

1. 266×10^-3 m^-1
2. 166×10^-3 cm^-1
3. 266×10^-3 cm^-1
4. 166×10^-3 m^-1Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

67. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
2. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
3. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
4. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colourless in the solid-state.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

68. Which of the following options has the lowest degree of ionisation?

1. 0.0001 M CH₃ COOH
2. 0.001 M CH₃ COOH
3. 0.01 M CH₃ COOH
4. 0.1 M CH₃ COOH

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

69. The compound A can be exclusively oxidized into B by:

The compound A can be exclusively oxidized into B by:

1. NaCN, followed by hydrolysis
2. NaOI, followed by H₃O⁺
3. KMnO₄(hot), followed by hydrolysis
4. K₂Cr₂ O₇, followed by H₃ O⁺

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

70. Total number of primary and secondary amines possible with the molecular formula C₄ H₁₁ N, respectively, are:

1. 4 and 2
2. 4 and 3
3. 3 and 3
4. 5 and 3

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

71. ˄°m for NaCl, HCl and CH₃ COONa are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.05 S cm² moI^-1 If the conductivity of 0.001028 mol L^-1 acetic acid solution is 4.95×10^-5S cm^-1, the degree of dissociation of the acetic acid solution is:

1. 0.01233
2. 1.00
3. 0.1233
4. 1.233

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

72. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

1. The valence electron and valency are the same for group 1.
2. p-block elements exhibit properties of metals, nonmetals, and metalloids.
3. Noble gases, excluding He, typically possess 8 valence electrons.
4. Ne is considered the smallest atom in the periodic table

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

73. Consider the following acid-catalyzed hydration reaction:

Which of the following ion(s) is/are intermediates in the accepted mechanism for this process?

1. I, II and III
2. I and II
3. Only IV
4. None of the above.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

75. Consider the given statements:
Assertion (A): The energy of an electron is mainly decided by its principal quantum number.
Reason (R): The principal quantum number (n) is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electrons around the nucleus.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

76. K_c for the reaction SO₂ (g)+NO₂ (g)⇋SO₃ (g)+NO(g) is 16 at a given temperature. If we take one mole each of all the four gases in one litre vessel, the equilibrium concentrations of SO₂ and SO₃ respectively in mol L^-1 are:

1. 0.4, 0.8
2. 0.8, 0.16
3. 1.6, 0.8
4. 0.4, 1.6Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

77. Find the correct sequence of the bond enthalpy of the “C-X” bond among the following:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

78. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

79. Which species is the strongest oxidizing agent based on the given standard electrode potentials?

1. Fe³⁺
2. I₂ (s)
3. Cu²⁺
4. Ag⁺

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

80. The elimination reaction among the following is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

81. Element which has the lowest ionisation potential among the following is:

1. C
2. Si
3. Sn
4. Pb

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

82. The standard reduction potentials of Cu²⁺ | Cu and Cu²⁺ | Cu⁺ are 0.337 V and 0.153V respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu⁺| Cu

1. 0.184 V
2. 0.827 V
3. 0.521 V
4. 0.490 V

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

83. From the given set of 14th group elements, the element having the lowest ionisation potential is:

1. Si
2. Ge
3. Sn
4. Pb

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

84. Sucrose can be formed by:

1. 1. 𝛼–D–galactopyranose and 𝛼-D-glucopyranose
2. 𝛼–D–glucopyranose and 𝛽–D–fructofuranose
3. 𝛽–D–galactopyranose and 𝛼–Dfructofuranose
4. 𝛼–D–galactopyranose and 𝛽–Dfructopyranose

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

85. Match List-I with List-I

(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP – 22.4 L)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

86. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Zn(ll) salts are diamagnetic.
Reason (R): ion has one unpaired electron.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

87. The E° value for the Mn^3+/Mn²⁺couple is more positive than that of Cr³⁺ /Cr²⁺ or Fe³⁺ /Fe²⁺ due to change of:

1. d⁵ to d² configuration
2. d⁴ to d⁵ configuration
3. d³ to d⁵ configuration
4. d⁵ to d⁴ configuration

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

88. The shape/structure of [XeF₅]^– and XeO₃ F₂ , respectively, are:

1. Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
2. Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar
3. Octahedral and square pyramidal
4. Trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

89. A sample of a pure compound was found to contain carbon, hydrogen, and chlorine.
Its elemental analysis is given below:

What is the empirical formula for the compound?

1. CHCI₃
2. CH₂CI
3. CH₂ CI₂ 4. CH₃ CI

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

90. Which of the following options correctly represents the order of increasing polarizing power?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

BIOLOGY

91. Match the following types of aestivation

1. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
2. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
3. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
4. A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

92. Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia:

Choose the correct answer from theoptions given below:

1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4. А-II, В-III, C-I, D-IV

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

93. Visceral nervous system:
I: is the part of the peripheral nervous system
II: involves impulses travelling from the central nervous system to the viscera and from the viscera to the central nervous system.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

94. Cannabinoids are a group of chemicals used to produce all the following except:

1. Hashish
2. Afeem
3. Charas
4. Ganja

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

95. During the Calvin cycle, ATP is used in which phase?

1. Carboxylation
2. Reduction
3. Regeneration of RuBP
4. Both Reduction and Regeneration

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

96. Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II:

Select the correct option from the following:

Options:
(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
1. (iv) (ii)     (i) (iii)
2. (iii) (ii)     (iv)    (i)
3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
4. (i) (iii) (iv)    (ii)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

97. Consider the given two statement :
Statement A: In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves the fertilization of an egg by sperm outside the body.
Statement B: IVF is followed by the transfer of the resulting embryo into the uterus.

1. Only Statement A is correct.
2. Only Statement B is correct.
3. Both Statement A and Statement B are correct.
4. Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

98. How many of the given statements about aestivation are correct?
I: Aestivation refers to the arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to the other members of the same whorl.
II: In valvate aestivation, the sepals or petals in a whorl overlap one another without any specific pattern.
III: Twisted aestivation is characterized by one margin of the appendage overlapping that of the next one, as seen in china rose and cotton.
IV: Imbricate aestivation is seen in flowers like pea and bean, where the petals overlap in a specific direction.
V: Vexillary aestivation, also known as papilionaceous, is found in pea and bean flowers where the largest petal overlaps the lateral petals, which in turn overlap the smallest anterior petals.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

99. Cyanobacteria:
I: belong to Kingdom Monera.
II: are photosynthetic autotrophs.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

100. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide
Statement II: The building blocks of cellulose are glucose molecules
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

101. Anal styles are borne on the:

1. 9th segment only in female cockroach
2. 9th segment only in male cockroach
3. 10th segment only in female cockroach
4. 10th segment only in male cockroach

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

102. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Despite great morphological difference between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes, they are remarkably similar metabolically.
2. The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made up of 50S and 30S subunits.
3. The rough part of rough endoplasmic reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes in the process of synthesizing ER proteins.
4. The nucleolus is where the structural RNA for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from DNA.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

103. Which of the following is correct regarding reproductive processes?
Statement A: Parturition refers to the process of childbirth.
Statement B: Gestation is the period of embryonic and fetal development inside the mother’s womb.

1. Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
2. Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect
3. Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct
4. Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

104. Match the following columns and select the correct option:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
1. (iv) (i)         (ii)        (iii)
2. (i) (ii)        (iv)       (iii)
3. (ii) (i)         (iii)       (iv)
4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

105. Regarding meiosis and mitosis, one difference between the two forms of cellular reproduction is that in meiosis:

1. there is one round of cell division, whereas in mitosis there are two rounds of cell division.
2. separation of sister chromatids occurs during the second division, whereas in mitosis separation of sister chromatids occurs during the first division.
3. Chromosomes are replicated during interphase, whereas in mitosis, chromosomes are replicated during the first phase of mitosis.
4. Spindle fibers form during interphase, whereas in mitosis, the spindle fibers form during prophase.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

106. Give below are two statements:
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

107. Study the given two statements:
Statement I: The eye of the octopus and the eye of mammals are homologous.
Statement II: Sweet potato and potato are an example of homology.

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

108. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell cycle, resulting in the gain or loss of whole set of chromosome in an organism, is known as aneuploidy.
Statement II: Failure of cytokinesis after anaphase stage of cell division resulting in the gain or loss of chromosome is called polyploidy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

109. Complete the flow chart on central dogma

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

110. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Electron transport chain is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
Statement II: NADH and FADH2 donate electrons to the electron transport chain.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

111. The term ‘Complex III’ in the mitochondrial electron transport system refers to:

1. Cytochrome bc₁ complex
2. Cytochrome b₆f complex
3. Cytochrome c oxidase
4. Cytochrome c

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

112. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

1. Pavo
2. Ornithorhynchus
3. Salamandra
4. Hippocampus

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

113. A certain road accident patient with an unknown blood group needs an immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?

1. Blood group B
2. Blood group AB
3. Blood group O
4. Blood group A

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

114. Identify the incorrect statement related to electrophoresis:

1. Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation
2. Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece.
3. Fragments of DNA move toward anode.
4. Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

115. The functions of hormones of Fight or Flight do not include:

1. pupillary dilation
2. piloerection
3. increase in the strength of heart contraction storage of glucose into glycogen resulting in a
4. decreased concentration of glucose in the blood

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

116. Read the different components from I to IV in the list given below and tell the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from the outer side to the inner side in a woody dicot stem.
I. Secondary Cortex
II. Wood
III. Secondary phloem
IV. Phellem
The correct order is:

1. III, IV, II, I
2. I, II, IV, III
3. IV, I, III, II
4. IV, III, I, II

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

117. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle
C. AV node
B. Purkinje fibres
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:

1. A-E-C-B-D
2. B-D-E-C-A
3. E-A-D-B-C
4.E-C-A-D-B

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

118. Androgens:
I: regulate the development, maturation and functions of the male accessory sex organs.
II: stimulate muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, aggressiveness, low pitch of voice etc.
III. play a major stimulatory role in the process of spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa).
IV: act on the central neural system and influence the male sexual behaviour (libido).
V: produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate metabolism.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only II, III and V are correct
3. Only III, IV and V are correct
4. I, II, III, IV and V are correct

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

119. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct below: answer from the options given

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. А-III, В-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

120. In the process of oogenesis, what usually happens to the first polar body formed after the first meiotic division?

1. It is reabsorbed by the ovary.
2. It undergoes Meiosis I to form two polar bodies.
3. It fuses with the secondary oocyte to complete fertilization.
4. It degenerates, contributing no further to the reproductive process.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

121. The process of stratification in an ecosystem refers to:

1. The layering of abiotic components like soil and water.
2. The vertical distribution of plant and animal species in different layers.
3. The division of energy flow pathways into primary and secondary cycles.
4. The separation of producers and consumers based on their productivity.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

122. Penicillin’s potential as a therapeutic agent was fully realized during World War II due to the efforts by:

1. Alexander Fleming, who mass produced the antibiotic.
2. Ernest Chain and Howard Florey, who demonstrated its effectiveness.
3. Monascus purpureus, which was used to enhance its properties.
4. Streptococcus species, which produced similar antibiotics.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

123. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
2. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
3. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
4. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

124. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?

1. Cell-mediated immune response
2. Hormonal immune response
3. Physiological immune response
4. Autoimmune response

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

125. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The heart of a cockroach is an elongated muscular tube with chambers and ostia.
Statement II: Cockroaches have a closed circulatory system.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

126. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’:

1. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation.
2. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
3. is an IUD.
4. is a post-coital contraceptive.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

127. The Na⁺/K⁺pump maintains resting membrane potential by:

1. Pumping 2 Na⁺ out and 3K⁺ in to maintain neutrality.
2. Using facilitated diffusion to transport sodium and potassium.
3. Allowing equal passive diffusion of both ions across the membrane.
4. Pumping 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, per ATP hydrolysed.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

128. All the following will be correct for members of Phaeophyceae except:

1. Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll c are dominant photosynthetic pigments
2. Pyriform gametes
3. Floridean starch is the stored food
4. 2 unequal and lateral flagellar insertions

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

129. What is the origin of adventitious roots?

1. Direct elongation of the radicle
2. Parts of the plant other than the radicle
3. Branching of primary roots
4. Secondary growth in the stem

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

130. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): In most recombinant technologies, there is a need for the recombinant DNA to be expressed.
Reason (R): In most recombinant technologies, the ultimate aim is to produce a desirable protein.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

131. For artificial hybridisation experiment in bisexual flower, which of the sequences is correct?

1. Bagging → Emasculation → Cross pollination → Rebagging
2. Emasculation → Bagging → Cross pollination → Rebagging
3. Cross pollination → Bagging → Emasculation → Rebagging
4. Self-pollination → Bagging → Emasculation → Rebagging

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

132. Which of the following correctly describes the naming convention for restriction enzymes?

1. The first letter represents the genus, the next two letters represent the species, the strain is indicated by an additional letter, and Roman numerals indicate the order of discovery.
2. The first letter represents the genus, the next two letters represent the species, and Roman numerals indicate the recognition sequence.
3. The first three letters represent the bacterial species, followed by the strain name and Roman numerals indicating the recognition sequence.
4. The entire name of the bacterial strain is used, followed by Roman numerals indicating the enzyme’s function.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

133. The proximal convoluted tubules (PCTs) are lined with:

1. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
2.Columnar brush bordered epithelium
3. Squamous epithelium
4. Stratified epithelium

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

134. The form and size of algae is highly variable.
Which of the following is/are correct?
I: Ulothrix is a colonial alga.
II: Volvox is a filamentous alga.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

135. Coenzymes play crucial roles in metabolism by:

1. Acting as a temporary storage of electrons and protons.
2. Serving as structural components of cell membranes.
3. Directly participating as one of the substrates in a reaction.
4. Acting as integral membrane proteins.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

136. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. IV II III I
2. IV III II I
3. III II IV I
4. II IV I III

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

137. The pie chart shows the magnitude of biodiversity in vertebrate taxa. Fishes are represented by the alphabet:

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B or E

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

138. Consider the two statements:
I. Pelagic fishes produce a large number of small-sized offspring.
II: Most birds and mammals produce a small number of large-sized offspring.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

139. Match each item in Column I with one In
Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A         B          C          D
1. R S          P          Q
2. S R          P          Q
3. S R          Q         P
4. R S Q         P

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

140. Identify the incorrect statement regarding nucleolus.

1. Their content is continuous with nucleoplasm
2. It is site for active rRNA synthesis
3. Their number is always one per nucleus
4. Larger nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

141. What distinguishes C₄plants from C₃ plants in terms of CO₂fixation?

1. C₄ plants fix CO₂ into a 3-carbon compound, whereas C₃ plants fix CO₂ into a 4-carbon compound.
2. C₄ plants fix CO₂ into a 4-carbon compound in mesophyll cells, whereas C₃ plants fix CO₂into a 3-carbon compound in mesophyll cells.
3. C₄ plants lack RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells, whereas C₃plants containn RuBisCO in mesophyll cells.
4. C₄ plants use the Calvin cycle in mesophyll cells, whereas C₃plants use it in bundle sheath cells.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

142. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
1. (iii) (i)           (iv)         (ii)
2. (ii) (iv)         (iii)         (i)
3. (ii) (iii)         (i)           (iv)
4. (ii) (iii)         (iv)         (i)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

143. Saheli is:
I: a steroidal oral contraceptive pill
II: developed by CDRI, Lucknow
III: a low contraceptive value once a month pill

1. Only II is correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only I is correct
4. Only II and III are correct

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

144. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

145. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells.
II: A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
III: The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type.

1.0
2.1
3.2
4.3

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

146. Which of the following is a key difference between Cycas and Pinus?

1. Cycas has compound leaves, while Pinus has needle-like leaves.
2. Cycas is a gymnosperm, while Pinus is an angiosperm.
3. Cycas produces seeds in cones, while Pinus produces seeds in fruits.
4. Cycas is a monoecious plant, while Pinus is a dioecious plant.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

147. What is the main reason lipids are found in the acid insoluble fraction despite being fundamentally different components present in the fraction?

1. Lipids are large molecules.
2. Lipids are part of cell membranes and form vesicles when disrupted.
3. Lipids are water-soluble.
4. Lipids are polymers.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

148. A man has type AB blood and he marries a woman with type O blood. Two children are born to the couple and they also adopted one child. If child 1 has type A blood, child 2 has type B blood, and child 3 has type O blood, which child was adopted?

1. Child 1
2. Child 2
3. Child 3
4. Cannot be determined

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

149. The descent of testes into the scrotum during foetal development is crucial for:

1. Preventing autoimmune reactions against sperm cells
2. Ensuring proper secretion of testosterone
3. Facilitating spermatogenesis by maintaining optimal temperature
4. Allowing easier ejaculation through the urethra

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

150. The parallel venation in monocot leaves is reflected in the:

1. near similar sizes of vascular bundles, including main veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
2. near similar sizes of vascular bundles, except in main veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
3. large sizes of vascular bundles in mid rib and smaller in veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
4. smaller sizes of vascular bundles in mid rib and larger in veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

151. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Only the central cell in the embryo sac of angiosperms is diploid.
Reason (R): It is formed from an unreduced diploid mother cell.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

152. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): S.L. Miller’s experiment provided experimental support for the hypothesis of chemical evolution.
Reason (R): Miller created conditions simulating early Earth and observed the formation of all essential amino acids.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

153. Match the phases of the cell cycle with their descriptions:

1. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
2. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
3. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

154. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Natural methods of contraception are most effective methods.
Reason (R): Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

155. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): The fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.
Reason(R): Those who are better fit in an environment, leave more progeny than others.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

156. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Iodine-KI reagent can be used to detect starch in a sample.
Reason (R): Starch can hold iodine molecules in its helical portion and starch iodine is blue in colour.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain(A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

157. Why is the probability of observing DNA polymorphism higher in non-coding regions of DNA compared to coding regions?

1. Non-coding regions are more critical for protein synthesis and are less] tolerant to changes.
2. Non-coding regions are not under strong selective pressure, allowing more mutations to accumulate.
3. Mutations in coding regions are always beneficial, leading to higher variation.
4. Coding regions of DNA are entirely conserved and do not allow any mutations.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

158. In an idealized sigmoid (S-shaped) growth curve, which of the following phases represents the period of maximum exponential growth in a plant?

1. Lag phase, where initial slow growth occurs.
2. Log (exponential) phase, where growth rate increases rapidly.
3. Stationary phase, where growth rate stabilizes.
4. Senescence phase, where growth rate declines as nutrients become limiting.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

159. How does a frog primarily respire when submerged in water?

1. Through lungs, as water contains dissolved oxygen
2. Through cutaneous respiration by diffusing gases via the skin
3. Through buccal respiration by gulping air
4. Through gill-like structures temporarily formed underwater

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

160. A translational unit is:

1. found on mRNA and is flanked by a promoter and a terminator
2. found on rRNA and is flanked by a promoter and a terminator
3. found on mRNA and is flanked by a start codon and a stop codon
4. found on rRNA and is flanked by a start codon and a stop codon

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

161. The site of light reactions and dark reactions in chloroplasts are:

1. Both occur in the stroma.
2. Light reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, and dark reactions occur in the stroma.
3. Light reactions occur in the stroma, and dark reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes.
4. Both occur in the thylakoid membranes.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

162. A scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global biodiversity at about:

1. 2.1 million
2. 7 million
3. 15 million
4. 50 million

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

163. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Acetyl CoA will combine with the four-carbon oxaloacetate in the Krebs cycle to form the six-carbon citrate.
Statement II: The reaction mentioned in Statement I is catalyzed by Oxaloacetate synthase enzyme.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

164. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:

1. 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
2. 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
3. the 5′ (upstream) end
4. 3′ (downstream) end

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

165. Consider the given statements:
I: Lion, leopard and tiger belong to the same species
II: Lion, leopard, tiger and cats belong to same genus
III: Lion, leopard, tiger, cats and dogs belong to same family

1. Only III is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Only I is incorrect
4. I, II and III are incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

166. Match the columns and select the correct option:

1. a (iii), b (i), c (ii)
2. a (i), b (iii), c (ii)
3. a (iii), b (ii), c (i)
4. a (ii), b (i), c (iii)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

167. Study the given diagram and select the best option:

1. The mating between I-1 and I-II is consanguineous
2. The first born child of I-1 and I-II is a male
3. The first born child of 1-1 and I-II is a female
4. The first born child of I-1 and I-II is affected by a genetic disease

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

168. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:

1. Impulse Transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
2. The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic 2. neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
3. Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
4. Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

169. Match the structural components of an ovule with their correct function.

1. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
2. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

170. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Before assigning a biological name to a living organism, it is essential to identify the organism correctly.
Reason (R): Nomenclature or naming is only possible when the organism is described correctly and we know to what organism the name is attached to.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

171. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose.
Statement II: Starch and glycogen are branched polysaccharides.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

172. The Miller experiment was significant because it:

1. Demonstrated the survival of the fittest.
2. Showed that life could arise from non life under the right conditions.
3. Proved that organic molecules could be synthesized from inorganic compounds under conditions that might have existed on the early Earth.
4. Explained the mechanism of natural selection.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

173. In the regulation of cardiac activity, the parasympathetic nervous system:

1. Increases heart rate and the strength of ventricular contraction.
2. Releases norepinephrine to increase cardiac output.
3. Causes dilation of coronary arteries to increase oxygen delivery.
4. Decreases heart rate and slows down conduction of action potentials.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

174. Consider the two statements:
I: Baculoviruses are considered a safe option for use in research applications.
II: They have a broad range of organisms that can act as their hosts.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

175. Which of the following biofertilisers is correctly matched with its function?

1. Azospirillum – Absorbs phosphorus from the soil for plant use.
2. Glomus – Fixes atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms.
3. Anabaena – Adds organic matter to soil while fixing nitrogen.
4. Oscillatoria – Enhances drought resistance in crop plants.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

176. Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and E only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. B and E only

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

177. Identify the correctly matched pairs:

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

178. Which statement is wrong for viruses?

1. All are parasites
2. All of them have helical symmetry
3. They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
4. Antibiotics have no effect on them

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

179. The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres in:

1. Metaphase I of Meiosis I
2. Anaphase I of Meiosis I
3. Metaphase II of Meiosis II
4. Anaphase II of Meiosis II

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

180. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The filtrate gets concentrated as it moves down the descending limb of loop of Henle in the human nephron.
Reason (R): The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

←NEET REVISION TEST 3 (31.01.2026)

NEET REVISION V TEST (07.02.2026)→

More posts

error: Content is protected !!