NEET FULL TEST VI (06.12.2025)

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle accelerated with 150volt potential is 10^-10 If it is accelerated by 600 volts potential difference, its wavelength will be

3. The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of

1) Mass
2) Velocity
3) Momentum
4) Charge

4. The approximate wavelength of a photon of energy 2.48 eV is

1) 500 Å
2) 5000 Å
3) 2000 Å 
4) 1000 Å

5. The work function for tungsten and sodium are 4.5 eV and 2.3 eV respectively. If the threshold wavelength λ for sodium is 5460 Å, the value of λ for tungsten is

1) 5893 Å 
2) 10683 Å
3) 2791 Å
4) 528 Å

6. If ΔU and ΔW represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamical process, which of the following is true?

1) ΔU=ΔW, in an isothermal process
2) ΔU=-ΔW, in an adiabatic process
3) ΔU=ΔW, in an adiabatic process
4) ΔU=-ΔW, in an isothermal process

7. When the amount of work done is 333 cal and change in internal energy is 167 cal, then the heat supplied is

1) 2.1 kJ
2) 333 J
3) 500 J
4) 4.0 kJ

8. A thermo-dynamical system is changed from state (P₁,V₁) to (P₂,V₂) by two different process. The quantity which will remain same will be

1) ΔQ
2) ΔW
3) ΔQ + ΔW
4) ΔQ-ΔW

9. For an adiabatic process

1) P^γ V=constant
2) T^γ V=constant
3) TV^γ-1=constant
4) TV^γ=constant

10. Entropy of a thermodynamic system does not change when this system is used for –

1) Conduction of heat from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir
2) Conversion of heat into work isobarically
3) Conversion of heat into internal energy isochorically
4) Conversion of work into heat isochorically

11. According to equipartition of energy theorem, the energy related to each degree of freedom of a gas molecule is

1) 1/2  PV
2) 3/2  RT
3) 3/2 PV
4) 5/2  kT

12. If the satellite orbiting the earth at height R (R being radius of Earth) is stopped suddenly in its orbit and allowed to fall freely into the Earth, find the speed with which it hits the Earth:

13. A particle of mass 𝑚 is kept at rest at a height 3𝑅 from the surface of the Earth. What is the minimum speed with which it should be projected so that it does not return back?

14. The escape speed of a projectile on the Earth’s surface is 11.2 km/s. A body is projected out with twice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the Earth?

1) 18.5 km/s
2) 31.7 km/s
3) 26.8 km/s
4) 42.8 km/s

15. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the Earth with a speed equal to half the magnitude of escape velocity from the Earth. Determine the height of the satellite above the Earth’s surface.

1) R
2) 2R
3) R/3
4) 7R

16. The law of areas is a consequence of the law of conservation of:

1) angular momentum
2) energy
3) linear momentum
4) mass

17. If a person can jump on the Earth’s surface up to a height of 2 m, his jump on a satellite where acceleration due to gravity is 1.96 m/s² will be (in metre):

1) 5
2) 10
3) 20
4) 2

18. How much work per kilogram need to be done to shift a 1 kg mass from the surface of the earth to infinity?

1) g/R
2) R/g              
3) gR
4) g/R²

19. What is the weight of a body at a distance 2r from the centre of the earth if the gravitational potential energy of the body at a distance r from the centre of the earth is U?

1) U/2r
2) U/3r
3) U/4r
4) Ur

20. At what height (from the Earth’s surface) the gravitational field reduces by 75% of the gravitation field at the surface of earth?

1) R
2) 2R
3) 3R
4) 4R

21. By what percentage the energy of satellite has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to 3r/2?

1) 15%
2) 20.3%          
3) 66.7%
4) 33.33%

22. When three times escapes velocity is given to a particle on the surface of Earth, its potential energy on the surface of earth is:

23. Two particles are initially at rest and begin to move towards each other under the influence of mutual (internal) forces. At a particular instant, their speeds are (2v) and (4v) respectively. The velocity of the centre of mass of the system at that instant is:

1) Zero
2) 2
3) 4
4) 6

24. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by θ(t)=3t³−9t². The torque acting on the wheel becomes zero at

1) 4s
2) 3s
3) 2s
4) 1s

25. A solid cylinder of mass 4 kg and radius 5 cm rotates about its own axis with an angular speed of 6 rpm. A constant torque is applied to bring it to rest after π The magnitude of the required torque is

1) 5×10⁻³ N m
2) 5×10⁻⁴ N m
3) 5×10⁻⁵ N m
4) 1×10⁻⁵ N m

26. A uniform disc of radius 1 m and mass 50 kg is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. The speed of its centre of mass is 4 m s⁻¹. The total work required to bring the disc to rest is

1) 3 J
2) 4J
3) 5 J
4) 6 J

27. A particle of mass M moves with a constant velocity v parallel to the positive X-axis along a straight line y=a (where a≠0). The angular momentum of the particle about the origin 0 is

1) Zero, because the velocity is along the X-axis
2) Mva, directed along the positive Z-axis
3) Mva, directed along the negative Z-axis
4) Changes with time both in magnitude and direction

28. Four identical point masses, each of mass 10 kg, are positioned at the four vertices of a square PQRS with side length 3 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of this system about an axis that lies along the side PQ of the square.

1) 0.009 kg\m²
2) 0.018 kg\m²
3) 0.036 kg\m²
4) 0.00018 kg\m²

29. The motor of an engine rotating at an angular velocity of 600 rpm slows down at a constant rate of 3 rad/s². Calculate the time required for the motor to come to a stop.

1) 20 s
2) 12s
3) 24 s
4) 30 s

30. Find the ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular ring and a solid disc of the same radius R about an axis passing through their centres and perpendicular to their planes.

1) 1:√2
2) 1:2
3) √2:1
4) 2:1

31. A rigid body rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the body about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K, and the radius of the body is R. What is the ratio of rotational kinetic energy (K_rot) to translational kinetic energy (K_trans)?

32. A disc of radius 2m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has a speed 2 m/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

1) 200J
2) 300J
3) 400J
4) 500J

33. A particle is moving in circular path with constant speed. Which of the statement is incorrect?

1) Moving with variable acceleration
2) Angular momentum is conserved
3) Moving with variable velocity
4) Linear momentum is conserved

34. If the external force acting on the system of the particles is zero, then which of the following may vary

1) Position of the centre of mass
2) Velocity of centre of mass
3) Momentum of centre of mass
4) None of the above

35. The curve surface area of a liquid bubble of radius 2.1 cm with regards to significant figures is (use π = 3.14)

1) 55.4
2) 55.38           
3) 55 
4) 56

36. If a quantity is represented as the ratio of magnetic moment to the magnetic flux, then the dimensional formula of the resulting quantity is

1) [M¹ L⁰ T^-2 A² ]
2) [M^-1L⁰ T²A^-2]
3) [M^-1L⁰ T² A²]  
4) [M¹L⁰ T² A²]

37. The maximum relative error in measuring the time period of a simple pendulum of length (10±0.02)cm, taking the acceleration due to gravity as (9.8±0.49) ms^-2 is

1) 0.521
2) 0.026           
3) 0.032
4) 0.05

38. The dimensional formula for the capacitance of a capacitor is

1) [M^-1 L² T⁴ A²]
2) [M¹ L^-2 T⁴ A² ]
3) [M^-1L^-2 T⁴ A²]
4) [M^-1 L² T^-4 A² ]

40. Two particles of same masses are projected with velocities u and 2u If they have the same angle of projection, then the ratio of the maximum height attained by the first particle to the range of the second particle will be

41. A ball is shot horizontally from the top of a building of height 100 m with initial velocity of 5 m/s. The velocity of the ball in m/s the instant it covers a vertical distance of 50 m is

42. In a uniform circular motion, the angle between the linear velocity and the centripetal acceleration of a particle is

1) 0°
2) 90°
3) 120°
4) 180°

43. Consider a smooth-running analog clock. The ratio between the angular distances covered by the second hand and minute hand in 2 min is

1) 60: 1
2) 1: 60
3) 30: 1
4) 1: 30

44. Which of these statements is/are true?
A. Dark current is associated with a p-n photodiode
B. The IV graph of forward biased Zener diode lies in Quadrant III
C. Doping a semiconductor reduces resistivity

1) A and B only  
2) B and C only
3) A and C only  
4) A, B and C

45. Which of the following is/are false?
A. Reverse current flows due to minority carriers
B. In reverse biasing, the current is measured in mA
C. In a full wave rectifier consisting of four diodes, two diodes cannot have same biasing simultaneously

1) Only B
2) Only B and C
3) Only A and C
4) Only C

CHEMISTRY

46. Which one of the following is the correct state for PH₃

1) It is less basic than NH₃
2) It is less poisonous than NH3
3) Electronegativity of PH₃> NH₃
4) It does not show reducing properties

47. Among H₂O, H₂S, H₂Se, H₂Te, The one with maximum boiling point is

1) H₂O because of hydrogen bonding
2) H₂Te because of high molecular mass
3) H₂S because of hydrogen bonding
4) H₂Se because of lower molecular mass

48. Which one of the following is non- reducing?

1) H₂S
2) H₂Se
3) H₂Te
4) H₂O

49. The shape of XeOF₄ is

1) Octahedral
2) Square pyramidal
3) Pyramidal
4) T shaped

50. Assertion: Nitrogen and oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxide of oxygen.
       Reason: The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature.

1) The assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct
2) Both the assertion and reason are correct
3) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
4) Both assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion

51. Which of the following is tetrabasic acid?

1) Hypophosphorous acid
2) Metaphosphoric acid
3) Pyrophosphoric acid
4) Orthophosphoric acid

52. Select the correct option regarding the properties of dioxygen

1) Dioxygen never reacts with metal
2) Dioxygen is diamagnetic in nature
3) Combination of dioxygen with other elements is highly exothermic process
4) Dioxygen liquefies at 55 K and freezes at 90 K

53. Which one of the following statements about zeolites false?

1) They are used as cation exchangers
2) Some of the SiO₄^4- units are replaced by AlO₄^5- and AlO₆^9- ions in zeolite
3) They have opened structure which enables them to take up small molecules
4) Zeolite are having 3 dimensional structure

54. In diborane molecule

1) Four bridged hydrogens and two terminal hydrogens are present
2) Two bridged hydrogens and four terminal hydrogens are present
3) Three bridged hydrogens and three terminal hydrogens are present
4) Zeolite are having 3 dimensional structure

55. Inorganic graphite is ____________

1) B₃N₃H₆
2) B₃N₃
3) SiC
4) Fe(CO)₅

56. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following group 13 elements are:

1) Al < Ga < In < Tl
2) Ga < Al < In < Tl
3) Al < In < Ga < Tl
4) Al < Ga < Tl < In

57. The property which does not support anomalous behavior of boron is:

1) Formation of trihalides
2) High ionisation energy
3) Small size
4) High electronegativity

58. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below which of these are anomers.
1. 2.  3. 

1) 1&2
2) 1&3
3) 2&3
4) 3 Only

59. α-D- Fructose and β-D- Fructose structure differ only at

1) C-1
2) C-2
3) C-3
4) C-1 & C-2

60. The standard electrode potentials of the two half cells are given Ni²⁺ + 2e- = Ni;E ֯ = -0.25V, Zn²⁺ + 2e- = Zn; E ֯ = – 0.77 V. The voltage of cell formed by combining the two half cells would be

1) +0.52 V
2) -0.52V
3) 1.34V
4) -1.34V

61. Glucose react with Na/Hg to gives

1) Glucose oxime
2) Sorbitol
3) Glucaric Acid 
4) Gluconic Acid

62. In the cell, Zn/Zn2+ // Cu2+/Cu, the negative terminal is

1) Cu
2) Cu²⁺
3) Zn
4) Zn²⁺

63. Which of the following is not water soluble vitamin?

1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B₂
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin B₆

64. The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 Mol/L NaOH solution of diameter 1cm and length 50cm is 5.55 x 10³ Calculate its conductivity.

1) 0.01 S Cm^-1
2) 0.24 S Cm^-1
3) 1.67 S Cm^-1 
4) 1.35 S Cm^-1

65. The incorrect statement about denaturation of proteins is:

1) The primary and secondary structure are destroyed
2) It may or may not be reversible
3) It does not change the Temperature and pH
4) It results in loss of biological activity of proteins

66. The electrode potential of SHE is fixed as

1) 0.34 V
2) -0.34 V
3) 0 V
4) -76V

67. The Electrode potentials for Cu²⁺ + e- → Cu⁺ and Cu⁺ + e- → Cu are +0.15 V and + 0.50V respectively. The value of E ֯ Cu²⁺/Cu will be :

1) 0.234
2) 0.325
3) 0.56
4) 0.45

68. The sugar present in RNA is

69. In Metal Carbonyls of type M(CO)₄ , the metal is bonded ligands via :

1) Carbon
2) C=O
3) Oxygen
4) Both C and O

70. Which of the following complex is expected to absorb visible light?

1) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
2) [Cr(NH₃)6]³⁺
3) [Ti(en)₂(NH₃)₂]⁴⁺
4) [Sc(H₂O)₃(NH₃)₃]³⁺

71. Among the following ligands, which is expected to make complexes with maximum absorption of visible light

1) Halogens (X)  
2) CN^–
3) H₂O
4) NH₃

72. Which complex compound is most stable

1) [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₃)₃]
2) [CoCl₂(en)₂]NO₃
3) Co (NH₃)₆]₂(SO₄)
4) [Co(NH3)₄(H₂O)Br](NO₃)₂

72. Which complex compound is most stable

1) [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₃)₃]
2) [CoCl₂(en)₂]NO₃
3) Co (NH₃)₆]₂(SO₄)
4) [Co(NH3)₄(H₂O)Br](NO₃)₂

73. [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl exhibits

1) Optical isomerism
2) Geometrical isomerism
3) Both Optical and Geometrical isomerism
4) None of the above

74. Imagine you are standing in a place where there is no presence of light or total darkness, and in front of you are coordination compounds (given below) placed on a table. Which will show the most characteristic color ?

1) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
2) [Mn(H₂0)₆] ²⁺
3) Ni(CO)₄
4) None of the above

75. The The spin-only magnetic moment of the complex [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ in Bohr Magneton is :

1) 0
2) 1.732
3) 3.87 
4) 4.90

76. Which complex will give 2 moles of AgCl on treatment with excess AgNO₃?

1) [CoCl₃ (NH₃)₃]
2) [CoCl₂ (NH₃)₄]Cl
3) [CoCl(NH₃)₅]Cl₂
4) [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃

77. Which of the following correctly represents primary (ionisable) and secondary (non-ionisable) valencies in Werner’s theory for the complex CoCl₃​⋅6NH₃

1) 3 primary, 6 secondary
2) 6 primary, 3 secondary
3) 3 secondary, 6 primary
4) All are primary valencies

78. The correct hybridization and geometry of [PtCl₄]^2-

1) sp³, tetrahedral
2) dsp², square planar
3) sp³d², octahedral
4) d²sp³, octahedral

79. The correct name of [Cr(H₂O)₄ Cl₂]Cl⋅2H₂O is:

1) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride dihydrate
2) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) dichloride
3) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride hydrate
4) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride

80. What product is not formed in the following reaction?

81. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are
3ROH + PCI₃→ 3RCI + A
ROH + PCI₅ → RCI + HCI + B

1) POCI₃ and H₃PO₃ 
2) POCI₃ and H₃PO₄
3) H₃PO₄ and POCI₃
4) H₃PO₃ and POCI₃

82. Given below are two statements:
Statements-I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular mass because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole – dipole interactions.
Statements-II: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular mass due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1) Statements-I is incorrect but Statements-II is
2) Both Statements-I and Statement-II are correct.
3) Both Statements-I and Statements-II are incorrect.
4) Statements-I is correct but Statements-II is incorrect.

83. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?

1) MnO₂
2) Aluminium isopropoxide
3) Acetone
4) Ozone

84. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?

1) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
2) Benzoic acid
3) o-Nitrophenol
4) Benzenesulphonic acid

85. B in the following sequence is

86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly match?

87. What is the product of the following reaction?

88. In Cannizzaro reaction given below:
2 PhCHO : OH^– → PhCH₂OH + PhCOO- the slowest step is

1) the attack of : OH at the carbonyl group
2) the transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group
3) the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic group
4) the protonation of PhCH₂0^–.

89. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:

1) Aromatic acid 
2) Schiff base
3) Ketone
4) Carboxylic acid

90. Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde?

BIOLOGY

91. Homeostasis is best defined as:

1) A process where an organism changes rapidly in response to every environmental fluctuation.
2) The ability of an organism to maintain internal stability despite external changes.
3) A failure of regulatory control leading to physiological imbalance.
4) The principle behind preparing medicinal extracts in homeopathy.

92. A species that normally occupies only a limited geographical range due to pressure from a stronger competitor suddenly expands its habitat size when that competitor is removed experimentally. This ecological phenomenon is known as:

1) Competitive Exclusion
2) Competitive Release
3) Competitive Supremacy
4) Competitive Inclusion

93. To ensure pollination by bees, the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses which strategy?

1) Sexual deceit
2) Pseudo-copulation
3) Reward in the form of nectar
4) Providing a site for laying eggs

94. A rocky tide-pool community originally contained 15 species of invertebrates. After researchers eliminated one particular species, the community collapsed to only 8 species, even though no other species were directly removed.The eliminated species was most likely functioning as a:

1) Minor parasite with negligible host impact
2) Mutualistic partner offering shared resources
3) Keystone predator regulating community structure
4) Non-selective herbivore grazing on algae

95. Species that exhibit extremely high intrinsic rates of natural increase (r) typically show which characteristic?

1) Prolonged generation time resulting in slow population turnover
2) Very short generation time allowing rapid multiplication
3) Absence of mating rituals leading to faster reproduction
4) Lack of any upper limit on population size in nature

96. Despite long evolutionary histories, no predator achieves perfect hunting efficiency. The most fundamental reason for this is:

1) Predators lack advanced cognitive abilities compared to prey.
2) Large body size in predators restricts rapid pursuit of prey.
3) Faster reproductive cycles of prey prevent predator specialization.
4) Prey continuously evolve diverse structural and behavioural defences.

97. The logistic equation dN/dt = rN(1−N/K) predicts zero population growth when:

1) Population size only approaches K but does not reach it.
2) The ratio N/K becomes negligible.
3) Mortality exceeds natality due to crowding.
4) Population size becomes equal to the carrying capacity (N = K).

98. Two species of Paramecium are cultured together on identical food resources. Over time, one species dies out while the other thrives. This scenario best illustrates:

1) Competitive suppression of species with differing diets
2) Competitive exclusion due to overlapping niches
3) Size advantage determining species survival
4) Numerical dominance as the key factor in survival

99. During a short rainy season, an insect population multiplies rapidly and then vanishes completely by season’s end. Which population growth model does this exemplify?

1) Logistic (sigmoid) growth with carrying capacity
2) Decline due to plant senescence
3) Exponential (J-shaped) growth with subsequent crash
4) Predator-mediated population control

100. A group of ecologists marks 80 fishes and releases them into a pond. On recapture, 100 fishes are caught, including 40 marked ones. Using the Lincoln-Petersen method, the estimated fish population in the pond is closest to:

1) 50
2) 100
3) 200
4) 4000

101. Which of the following statements about salinity tolerance in aquatic organisms is incorrect?

1) Euryhaline species tolerate a wide range of salinities.
2) Stenohaline species are limited to narrow salinity ranges.
3) Salt concentration in inland waters is usually <5 ppt.
4) Marine animals can survive long in freshwater due to osmotic balance.

102. In interspecific interactions: Which interaction is correctly represented as benefiting one species and harming the other?

1) Amensalism → (–/0)
2) Commensalism → (+/0)
3) Competition → (–/–)
4) Predation → (+/–)

103. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

104. The evolution of the animal immune system was most likely driven by:

1) Herbivores pushing animals toward extinction
2) The selective pressures of parasitic and disease-causing organisms
3) Competition between animals and their habitats
4) Symbiosis between animals and their predators

105. The innate potential of a species to grow in number (intrinsic growth rate) does not follow which of the following?

1) Each species has this ability
2) When resources are unlimited, this potential is realized
3) This represents an idealized situation
4) Resource availability is not essential for unimpeded growth

106. Consider the following regarding the reasons for the fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and not in Plantae:
I. They are prokaryotes.
II. The cell wall of cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan.
III. They can fix atomspheric nitrogen
The correct explanations would be:

1) I and II only
2) I and III only
3) II and III only
4) I, II and III

107. Which of the following illustrate the limitations of the two-kingdom classification (Plantae and Animalia) by Linnaeus?
I. Euglena has features of both plants (chlorophyll, photosynthesis) and animals (motility, heterotrophy).
II.Chlamydomonas is autotrophic but possesses flagella.
III. Slime molds resemble animals in one phase of their life cycle and plants in the other phase.

1) I and II only
2) I and III only
3) II and III only
4) I, II and III

108. Consider the following statements regarding characters of Archaebacteria that they share with eukaryotes:
I. The cell wall does not contain peptidoglycan.
II. DNA associated with histones.
III. Translation initiated with formylated methionine.
IV. RNA polymerase similar to eukaryotic RNA polymerase II
V. ATPase similarity
VI. Similar DNA replication and repair
How many of the above characters Archaebacteria share with eukaryotes?

1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6

109. Consider the following statements regarding Mycoplasma:
I. They are a genus of bacteria that have a unique cell wall of their own.
II.In their genetic code UGA codes for tryptophan.
III. None of them is pathogenic to humans.
IV. They have a large genome.
V. They can be killed by penicillins.
VI. They can survive without oxygen
The number of correct statements is:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

110. Consider the following characters:
I. Heterotroph organisms
II. A dikaryon stage
III. Cell wall made of chitin
IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis
Which of the above relate to fungi?

1) I, II and III
2) I, III and IV
3) II, III and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

111. No predator can become proficient at acquiring prey because:

1) Predators are not as intelligent as prey.
2) Predators are too large to be fast enough.
3) Prey populations evolve more rapidly than predator populations.
4) Prey populations evolve anti predatory traits.

112. Which of the following is not an edible mushroom?

1) Agaricus bispora
2) Pleurotus ostreatus
3) Lentinula edodes
4) Amantia phalloides

113. Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched with all the characters given below:

1) Phycomycetes – Mycelium aseptate and coenocytic / Asexual reproduction by motile zoospores or by nonmotile aplanospores/spores-endogenously produced in the sporangium
2) Ascomycetes – Mycelium unbranched and septate / Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia produced endogenously on conidiophores
3) Basidiomycetes – Mycelium-branched and septate / Asexual spores are generally not found
4) Deuteromycetes – Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known

114. Bulliform cells help in:

1) Rolling the leaves inward in monocots
2) Protecting the plant from salt stress
3) Increasing photosynthesis in monocots
4) Creating large cavities for sugar storage

115. Xylem and phloem are termed complex tissues because:

1) They consist of several different kinds of cells
2) They carry water and food, respectively
3) They are found together in vascular bundles
4) They also give mechanical strength

116. Casparian strips in roots are made of—

1) Lignin
2) Suberin
3) Cutin
4) Pectin

117. The periderm of an old stem replaces—

1) Pith
2) Cortex
3) Epidermis
4) Secondary phloem

118. Companion cells are found in—

1) Gymnosperms only
2) Angiosperms only
3) Pteridophytes
4) All vascular plants

119. In monocot roots, the number of xylem arms is usually—

1) 2–3
2) 4
3) polyarchy
4) Always 2

120. The hypodermis in monocot stem is usually—

1) Parenchymatous
2) Collenchymatous
3) Sclerenchymatous
4) Meristematic

121. Interfascicular cambium in dicot stems arises from—

1) Sclerenchyma
2) Parenchyma of medullary rays
3) Xylem vessels
4) Endodermis

122. The tissue that provides elasticity to young stems is—

1) Sclerenchyma
2) Collenchyma
3) Parenchyma
4) Chlorenchyma

123. If a root develops endarch xylem instead of exarch, what major problem will arise?

1) It cannot elongate properly
2) Water conduction reverses direction
3) Phloem development stops
4) Cortex becomes lignified

124. If a dicot stem produces MORE secondary phloem than xylem, which cambial change happened?

1) Cambium became more active on outer side
2) Cambium stopped dividing
3) Cambium shifted to pericycle
4) Cambium produced only tracheids

125. If medullary rays become fully lignified, the first function lost would be—

1) Lateral movement of water and food
2) Vascular bundle protection
3) Storage of starch
4) Transport through phloem

126. A forest receives heavy rainfall but has very cold climate. What will happen first?

1) Humus accumulates
2) Decomposition speeds up
3) Ammonification increases
4) Mineralisation becomes complete

127. If detritivores in a forest become absent but decomposers remain, what will happen first?

1) Humus will form faster
2) Litter will accumulate
3) Mineral release becomes faster
4) NPP decreases due to low GPP

128. If a grassland suddenly starts transferring 40% energy instead of 10%, which ecological outcome will occur?

1) Shorter food chain
2) More trophic levels
3) Productivity becomes zero
4) Detritus food chain collapses

129. Two ponds have same NPP, but pond A has very high standing crop. This means—

1) Herbivore population is low
2) Productivity is very high
3) Trophic efficiency is high
4) Decomposition is rapid

130. If a desert suddenly shows productivity equal to an aquatic ecosystem, which factor must have changed first?

1) More decomposers evolved
2) Rainfall increased significantly
3) Food chain length decreased
4) Standing state became low

131. In a forest, if the DFC becomes stronger than the GFC, what changes first?

1) More energy flows to apex predators
2) Herbivore population increases
3) Energy flow becomes dominated by decomposers
4) NPP becomes zero

132. The major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem is—

1) Grazing food chain
2) Detritus food chain
3) Both equally
4) Neither

133. In an ecosystem, which of the following determines the length of the food chain?

1) Primary productivity
2) Secondary productivity
3) Trophic efficiency
4) Standing crop

134. Pyramid of numbers is generally inverted in—

1) Grassland ecosystem
2) Pond ecosystem
3) Tree ecosystem
4) Ocean ecosystem

135. In a grazing food chain, the first trophic level is always:

1) Green plants
2) Herbivores
3) Dead organic matter
4) Zooplankton

ZOOLOGY

136. The A-bands of skeletal muscle do not change their width during muscle contraction because

1) Thick filaments are not involved in the sliding filament theory
2) A-bands are the thick filaments themselves which do not shorten
3) A-bands extend beyond the sarcomere
4) A-bands are the thin filaments themselves which do shorten

137. Which of the following includes non muscular movement?
(a) Protoplasmic streaming
(b) Pseudopodial movement
(c) Flagellar movement
(d) Ciliary movement

1) (a) only
2) (b), (c) and (d)
3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4) None of them

138. Observe the following figure of rib-cage and identify the labelled parts


1) A – Vertebral column, B – True ribs, C – Sternum
2) A – Sternum, B – False ribs, C – Vertebral column
3) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Vertebral column
4) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Sacrum

139. Assertion (A): Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction.
         Reason (R): Calcium binds to troponin, causing a conformational change that exposes the myosin binding sites on actin.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true.

140. Select the correct statement from the given options

1) Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO₂ but not to H⁺ ions 
2) Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre by reducing the duration of inspiration
3) Residual volume (RV) can be expelled out by forcible expiration
4) The alveolar sac consists of many alveoli which open into a common alveolar duct

141. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide is carried in blood in the form of

1) Carbamino-haemoglobin
2) Dissolved in plasma
3) Carboxy-haemoglobin
4) Bicarbonate

142. Vasa recta in cortical nephrons

1) Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole
2) Does not involved in counter current mechanism
3) Carries deoxygenated blood which is rich in urea
4) Is absent or highly reduced

143. Observe the given figure and select the correct labelling with their correct description/function


1) a – Afferent arteriole: Carries deoxygenated blood to the glomerulus
2) e – ascending vasa recta: Carries blood which flows counter to ascending loop of Henle
3) d – Distal convoluted tubule: Carries dilute filtrate
4) f – Loop of Henle: Located in the cortical region of kidney

144. Match the following


1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

146. Statement I: Muscular movement is the fastest mode of locomotion in animals.
        Statement II: Hydra can use both its tentacles and pseudopodia for capturing prey.

1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both statements are correct
4) Both statements are incorrect

147. Assertion: Arthritis refers to inflammation of joints.
        Reason: Gout is caused by excessive formation of uric acid in the joints.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true.

148. The given figure shows the sarcomere of myofibril. Identify the labelled parts


1) A – I-band, B – Z-line, C – H-zone, D – A-band
2) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – H-Zone, D – I-band
3) A – H-zone, B – M-line, C – I-band, D – A-band
4) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – M-band, D – I-band

149. Which of the following statements is false?

1) ADH helps in water elimination making urine hypotonic
2) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule
3) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule
4) Henle’s loop plays a crucial role in concentrating urine

150. The action of aldosterone in kidney regulation is inhibited by

1) Angiotensin
2) Vasopressin
3) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
4) Adrenal cortex

151. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Clarias (Magur)?

1) Absence of air bladder
2) Presence of operculum
3) Presence of tympanum
4) Pneumatic bones

152. The bone that does NOT occur in pairs in humans is

1) Parietal
2) Nasal
3) Sternum
4) Maxilla

153. During muscle contraction:

1) Actin and myosin filaments overlap more
2) Actin and myosin filaments separate from each other
3) Length of all bands increases
4) Sarcomere length increases

154. The respiratory rhythm centre is located in:

1) Cerebrum
2) Medulla oblongata
3) Cerebellum
4) Hypothalamus

155. Assertion (A): Smoking increases the carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity.
   Reason (R): CO has much more affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen and forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

156. Which one of the following animals is not a protostome?

1) Arthropoda
2) Mollusca
3) Annelida
4) Echinodermata

157. Red muscle fibres have abundance of:

1) Myoglobin and mitochondria
2) Actin and myosin
3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
4) Glycogen

158. Study the statements:
(i) Coacervates can grow and divide.
(ii) Coacervates have a lipid bilayer.
(iii) Coacervates can selectively absorb molecules.
(iv) Coacervates arise from aggregation of colloidal molecules.
Which combination is correct for coacervates?

1) i,ii, iv
2) ii, iii
3) i, ii, iii
4) i, iii, iv

159. According to Oparin–Haldane theory, first life forms were:

1) Autotrophic anaerobes
2) Heterotrophic anaerobes
3) Autotrophic aerobes
4) Heterotrophic aerobes

160. Miller and Urey’s experiment did not produce:

1) Glycine
2) Alanine
3) Ascorbic acid
4) Aspartic acid

161. Assertion (A): Miller and Urey used CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in their experiment.
        Reason (R): Early Earth’s atmosphere was strongly oxidising.

1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A is true, R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

162. Match the following:


1) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
3) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

163. Which of the following is the best example of divergent evolution?

1) Wing of bat and wing of bird
2) Flippers of whale and fins of fish
3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
4) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals

164. Fossils of Archaeopteryx indicate:

1) Reptiles evolved from birds
2) Transitional form between reptiles and birds
3) Evolution of mammals from reptiles
4) Homologous organs in mammals

165. Assertion (A): Homologous organs indicate common ancestry among organisms.
        Reason (R): Homologous organs perform similar functions in all organisms possessing them.

1) A and R true; R is correct explanation
2) A and R true; R not the explanation
3) A true; R false
4) A false; R true

166. A research lab studies embryos of vertebrates. They observe that early embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals show pharyngeal gill slits and tails. This similarity provides evidence for:

1) Convergent evolution
2) Common ancestry
3) Analogous development
4) Independent origin

167. Assertion (A): Archaeopteryx is considered a “connecting link” fossil.
        Reason (R): It possessed both reptilian and avian characters.

1) True, True – R explains A
2) True, True – R does NOT explain
3) True, False
4) False, True

168. Assertion: Adrenocorticotropic Releasing Hormones (ARH) excite the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
     Reason: ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones.

1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

169. Choose the incorrect statement.

1) The secretion of the posterior lobe of pituitary is known as pituitrin.
2) High blood level of ADH is characterised by dilute blood and high plasma sodium.
3) Somatostatin is secreted from hypothalamus.
4) Thyrocalcitonin is secreted when calcium level in blood is high.

170. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to insulin.

1) It stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen.
2) Insulin inhibits cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.
3) Deficiency of insulin can cause formation of harm harmfu compounds known as ketone bodies.
4) Insulin is a peptide hormone.

171. X controls the secretion of a type of glucocorticoid ‘Y’ secreted from layer ‘Z’ of the adrenal cortex. Identify X, Y and Z.

1) X: ACTH; Y: Cortisol; Z: Zona fasciculata
2) X: TSH; Y: Epinephrine; Z: Zona reticularis
3) X: GnRH; Y: Testosterone; Z: Zona reticularis
4) X: ACTH; Y: Aldosterone; Z: Zona glomerułosa

172. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
1) Insulin is secreted by α-cells while glucagon is secreted by ẞ-cells.
2) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeo-genesis while insulin stimulates the glycogenesis.
3) The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by both insulin and glucagon jointly.
4) Prolonged hypoglycemia leads to diabetes mellitus which is associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compound known as ketone bodies.

1) A and D
2) B and D
3) C and D
4) A, B, C and D 

173. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.
(A) Glucagon is a protein hormone and maintains normal blood glucose.
(B) Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis and reduces blood sugar level.
(C) Glucagon promotes cellular glucose consumption.
(D) Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.

1) A and B are correct.
2) B, C and D are correct.
3) A and D are correct.
4) B and D are correct.

174. Match the following columns and select the correct option

175. During prolonged fasting, which combination of hormones is MOST crucial for maintaining blood glucose?

1) Insulin, Glucagon ↑, GH ↑
2) Insulin ↑, Glucagon↓, Cortisol ↑
3) Insulin, Somatostatin ↑
4) Glucagon, GH ↑

176. Which hormone from the anterior pituitary is controlled mainly by inhibition rather than stimulation?

1) GH
2) TSH
3) ACTH
4) Prolactin

177. Which statement about Miller-Urey experiment is INCORRECT?

1) It simulated conditions of primitive Earth
2) It proved that life originated from inorganic molecules
3) Amino acids were formed
4) The atmosphere used was strongly reducing

178. Select the incorrect statement.

1) Cells of zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex secrete glucocorticoids which affect glucose homeostasis.
2) Cushing’s syndrome is caused by excess of cortisol which may be due to a tumour of adrenal cortex.
3) Adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system function as an integrated system.
4) Adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoid only

179. Adrenal cortex is divided into three zones. The inner region called (i) secretes (ii), the middle layer (iii) secretes (iv) and the outer zone known as (v) secretes (vi).

1) (i) zona fasciculata, (ii)glucocorticoids,(v) zona reticularis
2) (ii) gonadocorticoids, (iii) zona fasciculata, (v) zona glomerulosa, (vi) mineralocorticoids
3) (i) zona fasciculata, (iv) cortisone,(v) zona glomerulosa,(vi)mineralocorticoid
4) (i) zona reticularis, (ii)glucocorticoids,(vi) zona fasciculata

180. A woman after childbirth shows inability to eject milk but normal milk production. Which hormone is deficient?

1) Prolactin
2) Oxytocin
3) Estrogen
4) TSH