NEET FULL TEST 2 (30.08.2025)

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

1. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence ion one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from opposite surface. If refractive index of material of prism is μ then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to

3. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?

4. A thin prism having refracting angle 10∘is made of glass of refracting index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be:

1) 6°
2) 8
3) 10°
4) 4°

5. If the angle of a prism is 60°and angle of minimum derivation is 40°, then the angle of refractive will be:

1) 20°
2) 2°
3) 30°
4) 3°

6. Two thin convex lenses of focal length 20 cm and 25 cm are placed at a finite distance apart. The power of the combination is 8 D. Distance between the lenses is

1) 5 cm
2) 10 cm
3) 8 cm
4) 4 cm

7. Assertion: Angle of deviation depends on the angle of prism.
    Reason: For thin prism, ∂=(μ−1) A.

1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. If assertion is true but reason is false.
4. If both assertion and reason are false.

8. If in a planoconvex lens, the radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10cm and the focal length is 30cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be

1) 1.5
2) 1.66
3) 1.33
4) 3

9. A ray of light strikes a transparent rectangular slab of refractive index √2 at an angle of incidence of 45∘. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays is

1) 75°
2) 90°
3) 105°
4) 120°

10. A concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 35.0cm. It is positioned so that the (upright) image of man’s face is 2.50 times the size of the face. How far is the mirror from the face?

1) 5.25cm
2) 21.0cm
3) 10.5cm
4) 42cm

11. A rotating ceiling fan continues to rotate for some time even after it is switched off because of

1) its angular velocity
2) rotating air
3) its inertia
4) momentum

12. A force vector applied on a mass is represented as and accelerates with 1 m/s². The mass of the body in kg is

1) 10
2) 20
3) 10√2
4) 2√10

13. A body of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of 500 m above the ground and undergoes inelastic collision. If the impulse imparted to the ground is 150 Ns, then the maximum height reached by the ball after collision is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1) 100 m
2) 200 m
3) 150 m
4) 125 m

14. In the figure below, find the contact force between the 8 kg and the 5 kg block.

1) 32 N
2) 35 N
3) 20 N
4) 37 N

15. In the diagram below, the normal reaction between the 2 kg and 3 kg is (consider the surface to be smooth: take g = 10 m/s²)

1) 39 N 
2) 25 N
3) 12 N 
4) 35 N

16. Using the figure from the previous question, the net acceleration of the system is (if the surface is rough with coefficient of friction . Take g = 10 m/s²)

1) 2 m/s²
2) 7 m/s²
3) 6 m/s²
4) 0

17. A ball with initial momentum strikes a wall and bounces off. If the ball comes back along the same path with a quarter of its initial velocity, then the initial velocity of the ball if the change in momentum is -10 Ns is

18. A block of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface, the surface is then brought into inclination such that the block begins to slide at an angle of 60º w.r.t horizontal. Then the ratio of the frictional force to the normal reaction is

19. A 40 kg mass is initially at rest on a rough bench and a 10 kg mass is attached to it as shown. A frictional force of 20 N opposes the motion of the 40 kg mass. The speed of the 10 kg mass after 5 seconds of their motion is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1) 0 m/s
2) 3.2 m/s
3) 4 m/s
4) 8 m/s

20. For a block of mass m resting on an inclined plane, the scalar product of the limiting friction f_s and the Normal reaction R is

1) f_s R
2) -f_s R
3) 0
4) cannot be determined

21. The potential at a point due to a positive charge of 8 μC at a distance 100 cm is

1) 72 KV
2) 58 KV
3) 7.2 KV
4) 5.8 KV

22. The potential of a charged conductor

1. is minimum at the surface
2. is minimum at the centre
3. is zero inside the surface
4. is constant inside the surface

23. Two charges +3q and -q are placed at the vertices B and C of an isosceles triangle as shown in the figure. The potential at the vertex A is

24. Work done in carrying a charge Q once around a circle of radius R with charge Q at the centre of a circle is

25. The potential at any point (r,θ) due to an electric dipole is

26. In bringing an electron towards another electron, the electrostatic potential energy of the system

1) increases
2) Decreases
3) remains the same
4) Becomes zero

27. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials 10V and 4V respectively. The work done in moving an electron from P to Q is

1) 9.6  × 10^-19  J
2) -9.6 × 10^-19  J
3) 2.24 × 10^-19  J
4) -.24 × 10^-19  J

28. Two charges of 4μC each are placed at the corners A and B of an equilateral triangle of side length 0.2 m in air. The electric potential at C is

1) 9×4 V
2) 18×10⁴  V
3) 36×10⁴  V
4) 36×10^-4  V

30. A metallic sphere of radius 10 m is charged such that potential at its surface is 120 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is

31. Consider the following statements:
a) Acceleration due to gravity depends only on mass of the body.
b) linear momentum of a planet is constant.
c) acceleration due to gravity depends on mass of planet.
d) Kepler’s laws apply only to the planets that move around the sun.
Which of the above statements are NOT correct?

1) (a) and (b) only
2) (a), (b) and (d) only
3) (a), (b) and (c) only    
4) (b) and (c) only

32. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 9.8 m/s and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 4.9 m/s at the same angle follows a trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (given, g = 9.8 m/s²):

1) 2.45
2) 3.45
3) 4.25 
4) 5.25

33. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving with a velocity of 20 m/s. If the engine of the car can provide a constant power of 50 kW, then the car will attain a velocity of 40 m/s in:

1) 10 seconds
2) 12 seconds
3) 14 seconds
4) 18 seconds

34. A point mass ′m′ is moved in a vertical circle of radius ′r′ with the help of a string. The velocity of the mass is ​ at the lowest point. The tension in the string at the lowest point is:

1). mg(1+π)
2). mg(1-π)
3). mg/π
4). None of these

35. A pump delivers water at the rate of V cubic meter per second. By what factor its power should be raised so that it delivers water at the rate of nV cubic metre per second?:

1). n³
2). √n 
3). n 
4). n²

36. The acceleration due to gravity at height 1 km above the earth’s surface is same as at a depth d below the earth’s surface, then d equals:

1) 1 km
2) 2 km
3) 3 km
4) 4 km

37. For a particle moving in a vertical circle, the total energy at different position along the path is:

1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) May increase or decrease         
4) Conserved

38. An engine is used to pump a liquid of density ρ through a pipe of cross-sectional area A. If the speed of flow of liquid is v, then the rate at which kinetic energy is being imparted to the liquid is:

39. A man does a given amount of work in 10 sec. Another man does the same amount of work in 20 sec. The ratio of the output power of the first man to the second man is:

1) 1
2) 2     
3) 1/2
4) 2/1

40. Study the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Power of the machine gun is determined by both the number of bullets fired per seconds and kinetic energy of bullets.
Reason: Power of any machine is defined as work done per unit time.
Mark the correct choice as, if:

1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true but R is false
4) If A is false but R is true

41. The height at which acceleration due to gravity decreases by 36% of its value on the surface of the earth’s surface is (R = radius of earth):

1) R/4
2) R/2 
3) R/6
4) 4R

42. The time period of a simple pendulum is T₁ on the surface of earth. If taken to a height 3R above the surface of earth, the time period becomes T₂. What will be the value of T₂/T₁? (R is the radius of earth):

1) 16:9
2) 16:27
3) 1:4
4) 4:1

43. The radius of the earth shrinks by 1%, mass remaining constant, the percentage change in acceleration due to gravity is:

1) – 2%
2) + 2%
3) – 1%
4) + 1%

44. A body weighs 100 N on the surface of the earth. The ratio of its weight at a height half the radius of the earth to a depth of half the radius of the earth will be:

1) 4:2√2
2) 1: 2 
3) 2:1
4) 8:9

45. A body at rest is moved in a straight line by supplying constant power to it. Distance moved by the body in time t is found to be proportional to tⁿ. Value of n is:

1) 5/2
2) 2/3  
3) 1/2
4) 3/2

CHEMISTRY

46. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are

1) 2, 0
2) 2,1
3) 2
4) 1

47. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where the Balmer series lines appear is

1) Infrared
2) Visible
3) Microwaves
4) Ultra Violet

48. The ionization enthalpy of H- atom is 1.312 X 10⁶ J/mol. The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from n=1 to n=2 is

1) 46 X 10 ⁵ J/mol
2) 1 X 10 ⁵ J/mol
3) 85 X 10 ⁵ J/mol
4) 57 X 10 ⁶ J/mol

49. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is 1× 10^-5 m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be (h=6.62X10^-34 kg m2/s)

1) 25 X 10^-34 m
2) 01 X 10^-34 m
3) 27 x 10^-30 m
4) 27 x 10^-20 m

50. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals
n=3, l=2, m_l =0

1) 5
2) 4
3) 1
4) 3

51. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l=2, n=3 is

1) 8
2) 10
3) 18
4) 32

52. Which of the following pairs of d- orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

1) dxy, dyz
2) dyz,dx²– y²
3) dz², dx²-y²
4) dz2, dzx

53. The de-Broglie wavelength of a cricket ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10meters per second is approximately (h = 6.63 X 10^-34 Js)

1) 1 X 10 ^-31 meters
2) 1 X 10 ^-30 meters
3) 1 X 10 ^-28 meters
4) 1 X 10 ^-33 meters

54. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

1) Alpha particle scaterring from Gold
2) Beta particle scaterring from Gold
3) Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
4) A and B

55. How many electrons can fit in the orbitals for which n=3 and l =1?

1) 2
2) 6
3) 10
4) 14

56. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Na atom is

1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3

57. Which of the following set is non permissible?

1) n=4, l= 3, m=0
2) n=4, l= 2, m= 1
3) n= 4, l= 4, m=1
4) n=4, l=0, m= 0

58. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion(A): Helium is used to dilute oxygen in the diving apparatus.
Reason (R): Helium has a high solubility in O₂
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

1. (A) is False but (R) is True
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is True but (R) is False

59. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in 250ml of water (P1). 10g of urea (CH₄N₂O) in 250ml of water(P₂) and 10g of sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₂) in 250ml of water(P₃). The decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is:

1) P₂ > P₃ > P₁ 
2) P₃ > P₁ > P₂
3) P₂ > P₁ > P₃
4) P₁ > P₂ > P₃

60. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45^oC with benzene to octane in a molar ratio 3:2 is:
[At 45^oC vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mmHg and that of octane is 420 mmHg. Assume ideal Gas]

1) 336 mm of Hg            
2) 350 mm of Hg
3) 160 mm of Hg
4) 168 mm of Hg

61. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is:

1. Acetone + Chloroform
2. Chloroethane + Bromoethane
3. Ethanol + Acetone
4. Benzene + Toluene

62. The freezing point depression constant (K_f) of benzene is 5.12Kkgmol^-1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

1) 0.40K 
2) 0.60K
3) 0.20K
4) 0.80K

63. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is:

1. Water + Nitric Acid
2. Ethanol + Water
3. Acetone + Carbon Disulphate
4. Heptane + Octane

64. At 100^oC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5g of a solute in 100g of water is 732 mm. If K_b = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:

1) 103^oC
2) 101^oC
3) 100^oC
4) 102^oC

65. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

1. ΔP = P_observed – P_Raoult
2. ΔH_mix
3. ΔS_mix
4. ΔV_mix

66. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff’s factor (i) as tht of Al₂(SO₄)₃ (If all are 100% ionised)

1) K₄[Fe (CN)₆]
2) K₂SO₄
3) K₃[Fe (CN)₆]  
4) Al (NO₃)₃

67. Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?

1) Al₂(SO₄)₃
2) K₂SO₄
3) KCl
4) C₂H₁₂O₆

68. If osmotic pressure of 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose is same as 2% (w/v) solution of “X”, then the molecular mass of X (g/mol) is

1) 171
2) 205.2
3) 570
4) 150

69. In which case the number of molecules of water maximum?

1) 18mL of water
2) 18g of water
3) 10^-4 mol of water
4) 00224 L of water

70. In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C —> A₄B₂C₃ , what will be the number of moles of product formed , starting from 3 moles of A, 0.8 moles of B, and 1 mole of C ?

1) 0.24
2) 0.3
3) 0.75
4) 0.4

71. How much NaNO₃ must be weighed out to make 40 mL of an aqueous solution containing 65 mg of Na+ ions per mL ?

1) 12.9 g
2) 9.6 g
3) 8.5 g
4) 6.7 g

72. In the reaction 4NH₃ (g) + 5O₂ (g) à 4NO (g) + 6H₂O (l). When 1 mole of Ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion then :

1) 1 mole of H2O is produced
2) 1 mole of NO will be produced
3) All the Oxygen will be consumed
4) All the Ammonia will be consumed

73. Volume of CO₂ obtained by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g BaCO₃ at STP is (Gram atomic mass of Ba = 137.33 g per mole)

1) 2.24 L
2) 1.12 L
3) 0.84 L
4) 0.56 L

74. 15 g of hydrofluoric acid gas occupies 5.6 litres of volume at NTP. If the Empirical formula of the gas is HF, then its molecular formula will be

1) HF
2) H₂F₂
3) H₃F₃
4) H₄F₄

75. The no. of moles of CO₂ which contains 10g of Oxygen is

1) 0.1 mole
2) 0.2 mole
3) 0.5 mole
4) 0.3 mole

76. Two elements X (atomic mass 16) and Y (atomic mass 14) combine to form compounds A,B and C. The ratio of different masses of Y which combine with a fixed mass of X in A,B and C is 1:3:5. If 32 parts by mass of X combines with 84 parts by mass of Y in B, then in C, 8 parts by mass of X will combine with how many parts by mass of Y ?

1) 28
2) 70
3) 35  
4) 50

116. A bacterium is multiplying in a cup and takes 36 minutes to fill one-fourth of the cup with its population. Calculate the time by which cup will be completely filled with bacterial population? [Hint: Generation time 1 minute]

117. Which of the given organisms reproduce asexually by non-motile spores?

1) Laminaria
2) Polysiphonia
3) Chara
4) Volvox

118. Prophase I differ from prophase of mitosis as in the former stage:

1) Condensation of chromatin takes place.
2) DNA replication takes place.
3) Pairing of homologous chromosome occurs.
4) Nuclear membrane disappears.

119. During anaphase-1 of meiosis:

1) Homologous chromosomes of a pair separate.
2) Non-homologous chromosomes separate.
3) Sister chromatids separate.
4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome separate by splitting of Centromere.

120. Study the following table carefully and select the correct options for (a), (b), (c) and (d)

121. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:
A. Crossing over
B. Synapsis
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata
D. Disappearance of nucleolus

1) B, C, D, A
2) B, A, D, C
3) B, A, C, D
4) A, B, C, D

122. In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through:

1) Rhizome
2) Tuber
3) Bulbils
4) Corm

123. How many chromatids are present in Anaphase 1 of Meiosis-I of a diploid cell having 10 chromosomes?

1) 4
2) 6
3) 20
4) 40

124. In the life cycle of algae, where does mitotic division occurs

1) During spores formation
2) During gametes formation
3) After zygote formation
4) After gametes formation

125. The region of root where increase in vacuole takes place

1) Region of elongation
2) Region of maturation
3) Region of elongation
4) Region of root cap

126. The diagram shows the modification of plant part. Identify the part of modification


1) Leaf blade
2) Terminal bud
3) Petiole
4) Lateral bud

127. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which proteins?

1) Actin
2) Myoglobin
3) Actomyosin
4) Myosin

128. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by

1) Stolon
2) Runner
3) Offset
4) Sucker 

129. In (i) type of inflorescence, main axis terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth and flowers are borne in (ii) succession.

          (i)                     (ii)
1) Racemose         acropetal
2) Racemose        basipetal
3) Cymose            acropetal
4) Cymose            basipetal

130. How are stem tendrils different from leaf tendrils?

1) Stem tendrils have scale leaves in the region of forking whereas scale leaves do not occur on leaf tendrils.
2) Buds do not occur on stem tendrils whereas buds occur on the leaf tendrils.
3) Stem tendrils are always unbranched whereas leaf tendrils are always branched.
4) Stem tendrils develop in the position of leaf whereas leaf tendrils develop in the position of shoot axis.

131. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A The stem tubers are the swollen ends of specialised underground stem branches, which help in vegetative propagation of the plant.
Statement B: Solanum tuberosum is an example of a stem rhizome which stores inulin as the main reserve food material.

1) Both statements A and B are correct.
2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.
4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

132. Refer to the given figure and select the correct statement.

1) It possesses one nodes.
2) It grows sub-aerially for some distance and finally touches the ground.
3) It is present in Mint, Jasmine, etc.
4) All of these

133. Cytokinesis in an animal cell takes place by ___method in___ direction; while in a plant cell it occurs by__ method in ___direction.

1) furrowing, centrifugal, cell plate, centripetal
2) furrowing, centripetal, cell plate, centrifugal
3) cell plate, centrifugal, furrowing, centripetal
4) cell plate, centripetal, furrowing, centrifugal

134. Assertion: Young root tips are used for the study of meiosis.
        Reason: Meiosis introduces new combination of traits

1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

135. Select the option which correctly represents the stage anaphase-I for chromosome number 2n = 4

ZOOLOGY

136. According to MTP (Amendment) Act 2017, pregnancy may be terminated on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner within

1) 12 weeks
2) 24 weeks
3) Beyond 24 weeks
4) Second trimester

137. Which of the following STD is not completely curable?

1) Gonorrhoea
2) Syphilis
3) Genital herpes
4) Genital warts

138. Which of the following IUDs will prevent ovulation?

1) Cu7
2) LNG-20
3) Lippes loop
4) Multiload 375

139. The most widely used contraceptive is

1) Condom
2) Hormone injection
3) Coitus interruptus
4) IUCD

140. Infertile couples can be assisted to have children through which technique?

1) PID
2) VD
3) IUD
4) ART

141. How many of the following are indicators of improved reproductive health of society?
(a) More couples with larger families
(b) Better detection and cure of STIs
(c) Better post-natal care
(d) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries
(e) Increased IMR
Choose the correct option from the following

1) One
3) Four
2) Three
4) Five

142. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural, and social.
Statement II: USA was the first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at the national level towards attaining a reproductively healthy society
Choose the option which correctly describes the above-given statements:

1) Both statements I and Il are correct.
2) Both statements | and Il are incorrect.
3) Only statement I is correct.
4) Only statement Il is correct

143. Match the following:


1) A−(iii),B −(i),C−(iv),D−(ii)
2) A−(i),B−(iii),C−(ii),D − (iv)
3) A−(iv),B−(iii),C−(i),D−(ii)
4) A−(ii),B−(iv),C −(i),D −(iii)

144. Assertion(A): In intrauterine transfer (IUT) embryos, more than 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube.
        Reason(R): IUT has poor success rate.

1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
4) Both (A) and (R) are false

145. Choose the right one among the statements given below:

1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus.
3) lUDs suppress gametogenesis.
4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

146. Emergency pills should be used after 72 hours of

1) Coitus
2) Ovulation
3) Menstruation
4) Gastrulation

147. Select the odd one out from the following STDs

1) Chlamydia
2) Genital herpes
3) Hepatitis-B
4) Trichomoniasis

148. The method of injecting sperm inside the cytoplasm of an ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called

1) GIFT
2) ICSI
3) ET
4) ZIFT

149. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:

1) Most of the major organ systems are formed
2) The body is covered with fine hair
3) Movement of the foetus
4) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed

150. The function of oral contraceptive pills in birth control is

1) To inhibit sperm mobility
2) To inhibit ovulation
3) To inhibit oogenesis
4) To inhibit implantation

151. Transfer of donor’s semen into the uterus of female is called

1) IUI
2) IUT
3) ZIFT
4) ICSI

152. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme
        Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide

1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
4) (A) is false but (R) is true

153. Chances of ovulation is very low during intense lactation because

1) Suppression of gonadotropins
2) Increase secretion of gonadotropins
3) Suppression of fertilization
4) Increase secretion of oxytocin

154. Select the incorrect pair from the following

1) Periodic abstinence – Natural contraceptive
2) Progestesert – Hormone releasing IUD
3) Saheli – Steroidal pills
4) Embryo more than 8 blastomeres – IUT

155. Which of the following statements are correct regarding oral contraceptive pills
(i) They inhibit ovulation and implantation
(ii) They alter the quality of fallopian mucus to prevent fertilization
(iii) They inhibit sperm mobility

1) (i) only
2) (i) and (ii)
3) (ii) and (iii)
4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

156. Misuse of amniocentesis can lead to

1) STD
2) MTP
3) RTI
4) ART

157. In which technique of ART, fertilization takes place in fallopian tube?

1) GIFT and ZIFT
2) ZIFT and AI
3) GIFT and AI
4) ZIFT and IUT

158. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT procedure

1) Ova collected from female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation in the recipient
2) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube of recipient
3) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient
4) Ova is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient

159. In rDNA technology, primers are

1) Chemically synthesised, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules
2) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA
3) Specific sequences present on rDNA
4) Required to identify transformants from non-transformants

160. Select the odd one out.

1) Denaturation, annealing, extension
2) Recognition site, Origin of replication, Selectable marker
3) Exonuclease, Ligases, Polymerase
4) Electrophoresis, ELISA, bioreactor

161. pBR322, commonly used vector is

1) Original bacterial plasmid
2) Original yeast plasmid
3) Artificial bacterial plasmid
4) Viral vector

162. Sequence of vector mediated gene transfer involves

1) Treatment with divalent cations—> placing on ice —> heat shock —> incubation of cells with rDNA on ice
2) Treatment with calcium chloride —> pores made by electrical impulse —> DNA molecules incorporated into cells
3) DNA coated with gold pellet —> embedded on plastic disc —> bombarded with high velocity to target cell
4) Micropipette filled with DNA—> inserted into nucleus of cell—> pressure applied—>DNA injected into cells

163. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1) Separation of raw materials– Culturing
2) Primer extension in PCR – Reverse transcriptase
3) dNTPs – Deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates
4) Bacteriophage– Cloning vector

164. Regarding Sparged stirred tank bioreactor, select the correct statements.
i. Sparger is responsible for proper aeration
ii. Surface area for oxygen is increased
iii. Air inlet is at the bottom, materials can be introduced through it
iv. Fermentation process is anaerobic

1) I and II
2) II and III
3) III and IV
4) I and IV

165. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is a

1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

166. Identify A and B from the given diagram.

1) Pvu I and Sal I
2) Bam HI and Sal I
3) Bam HI and Pst I
4) Pvu II and Pst I

167. When linear and circular DNA are cut at four recognition sites, number of fragments produced are

1) 3 and 4
2) 4 and 4
3) 5 and 4
4) 3 and 3

168. Assertion: Continuous culturing maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log or exponential phase
         Reason: Continuous culturing of cells involve passing out of medium from one side and addition of fresh medium from the other side

1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) is correct but R is the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect but R is correct

169. Which of the following is endonuclease?

1) Protease
2) Hind III
3) RNase
4) DNase I

170. Polyethylene glycol method is used for/as

1) Gene transfer without a vector
2) Isolation of DNA
3) Composition of bioreactor
4) Production of plasmids

171. Statement I: Commonly used vector contains multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease
        Statement II: Presence of multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease results in multiple fragments

1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and II are correct
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

172. Who is the father of Indian Biotechnology?

1) Birbal Sahni
2) Prof VL Chopra
3) Prof AK Chopra
4) Dr Lalji Singh

173. Match the following:


1) 1− iv,2− ii,3− i,4− iii
2) 1− iii,2− i,3− ii,4− iv
3) 1− iv,2− iv,3− iii,4− i
4) 1− ii,2− iv,3− i,4− iii

174. EFB stands for

1) European Federation for Biology
2) Europe Federation for Biotechnology
3) European Federation of Biotechnology
4) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology

175. Assertion: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a divalent cation
        Reason: Divalent cations decrease the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall

1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation A
2) A is correct but R is the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect but R is correct

176. The minimum heat range in PCR is observed in which step?

1) Denaturation
2) Extension
3) Annealing
4) Elongation

177. Select the correct option.
1. rDNA is formed by joining together DNA from two different sources.
2. Endonuclease remove nucleotides from the end of DNA.
3. Sticky ends are named so because they form hydrogen bond with their complementary cut counter parts

1) 1 only
2) 1 and 2
3) 2 and 3
4) 1 and 3

178. Foreign DNA was inserted into a cloning vector at the ampicillin resistance gene. Non-recombinants would survive on medium containing:

1) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
2) Neither tetracycline nor ampicillin
3) Ampicillin but not tetracycline
4) Tetracycline but not ampicillin

179. Which of the following is not tool for rDNA technology?

1) Restriction enzyme
2) DNA fingerprinting
3) Cloning vector
4) PCR

180. A mixture contains DNA fragments p,q,r,s with differing sizes, where, p + q = r, p > q, s > r was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from anode to cathode sides of the gel would be

1) q, r, p, s
2) r, p, q, s
3) q, p, r, s
4) s, r, p, q