NEET FULL TEST 1 (02.08.2025)

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 108 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

2. A circular plate lies in the XY-plane. The X and Y axes lie in the plane of the plate and are perpendicular to each other, while the Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the plate (i.e., the axis of the disc). If the moments of inertia of the plate about the X-axis and Y-axis are 25 kg·m² and 35 kg·m², respectively, then what is the moment of inertia of the plate about the Z-axis (in kg·m²)?

3. A motor supplies a constant power of 1500 watts to rotate a solid cylindrical drum. The torque applied by the motor is measured to be 30 N·m. Assuming the torque remains constant, what is the angular acceleration of the drum (in rad/s²) at the instant when the drum starts from rest?

1. 50 rad/sec
2. 20 rad/sec
3. 2 rad/sec
4. 5 rad/sec

4. A heavy object is spinning steadily around a fixed axis. To bring it to rest efficiently, which of the following approaches is most effective?

1. pressure at the turning point.
2. upward force at the turning point.
3. downward force at the free end.
4. torque in opposite direction

5. A thin circular disc is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. If its translational kinetic energy is given to be E, what will be its total kinetic energy?

6. Five identical circular metal disks, each having radius R and mass M, are arranged in the shape of a cross — one disk is placed at the origin, and the remaining four are centered directly above, below, left, and right of it, each at a vertical or horizontal distance of 2R. Using the origin as the reference point, what is the y-coordinate of the Center of mass of this five-disk system?

1. 2R
2. R
3. -R
4. 0

7. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ρ and radius R about its diameter?

8. A rotating drum has a moment of inertia of 2.5×10² kgm² and spins with a constant angular velocity of 5.2 rad/s. A braking system applies a constant opposing torque of 5×102 Nm to slow it down. How much time will it take for the drum to come to a complete stop?

1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 1.5 s
4. 2.6 s

9. A heavy flywheel initially rotating at an angular speed of 6 rad/s is brought to rest in 3 seconds by a constant opposing torque of 360 N\m. What is the moment of inertia of the flywheel?

1. 90 kgm²
2. 120 kgm²
3. 180 kgm²
4. 240 kgm²

10. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved

11. What is the radius of gyration of a uniform circular disc about a tangent drawn in the plane of the disc?

12. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of level corresponding to n=4 is

1. -0.54 eV
2. -0.65 eV
3. -0.85 eV
4. -1.5 eV

13. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 6.0×10¹⁴ s^-1. The kinetic energy of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency v=1.0×10¹⁵ s^-1 hits the metal is

1. 1.988×10^-19 J
2. 2.65×10^-19 J
3. 1.65×10^-19 J
4. -19.36×10^-19 J

14. The Energy of a photon emitted during a transition from n=3 to n=1 state in the hydrogen atom is

1. -4.58×10^-19 J
2. -3.0×10^-19 J
3. -16.32×10^-19 J
4. Photoelectric emission will not occur

15. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron on atom within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?

1. 5.79×10⁶ ms^-1
2. 2.2×10⁶ ms^-1
3. 4.2×10³ ms^-1
4. 9.1×10⁶ ms^-1

16. A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic deep red light of wavelength 6626 Å. The number of photon emitted per second is

1. 7.18×10¹⁹ s^-1
2. 8.3×10¹⁹ s^-1
3. 3.77×10¹⁹ s^-1
4. 1.65×10¹⁹ s^-1

17. The number of spectral lines that can be observed when electrons in the 7^th shell in different hydrogen atoms return to the 2^nd shell is

1. 21
2. 15
3. 5
4. 6

18. Which of the following transition will have shortest wavelength in hydrogen atom?

1. n₂=5 to n₁=1
2. n₂=3 to n₁=1
3. n₂=5 to n₁=2
4. n₂=6 to n₁=2

19. A difference of 4.141 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from higher energy state to lower energy state?

1. 560 THz
2.1000 THz
3. 100 THz
4. 5600 Thz

20. How much energy is required to ionize a hydrogen atom if the electron occupies orbit?

1. 0.54 J
2. 13.6 J
3. 8.64×10^-20 J
4. 2.18×10^-18 J

21. The momentum of a photon of energy 3 MeV is

1. 1.6×10^-21 kg m s^-1
2. 4.8×10^-13 kg m s^-1
3. 5.3×10^-24 kg m s^-1
4. 1.44×10^-5 kg m s^-1

22. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of a particle varies with acceleration potential V as

23. In which transition of hydrogen atom have same wavelength as in Balmer series transition of He⁺ ion (n=6 to n=2 )?

1. 4 to 2
2. 3 to 1
3. 2 to 1
4. 4 to 1

24. A spaceship of mass 2000 kg accelerates vertically with acceleration 9 ms^-2. An astronaut inside it has a mass of 70 kg. The amount of change in his weight inside the ship when it is in motion is? (Take g=9.8 ms^-2)

1. 1029 N
2. 686 N
3. 343 N
4. 0 N

25. A photon travels horizontally with velocity c towards a point P. At the same time, an electron with kinetic energy T moves in a direction opposite to that of the photon. The velocity of the photon as seen from the electron is

26. The slope of the time-displacement graph represents

1. velocity
2. speed
3. per velocity
4. per speed

27. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure.
Statement I: B lives closer to the school than A
Statement II: A takes lesser time to reach home
Statement III: B travels faster than A

Choose the correct option:
1. I, II and III are all true
2. Only I and II are false
3. Only II is true
4. Only II and III are true

28. If the magnitude of angular momentum of a particle at a distance of 400 cm from the axis of rotation is 100 kgm² s^-1. The magnitude of linear momentum p of the particle (in kg ms^-1) when the angle between the position vector and momentum vector is 60º is

30. A body travels a distance of 15 m towards east with a speed of 30 m/s, then travels a distance of 8 m towards north with a speed of 16 m/s. Its average velocity is

31. If the angle between two displacements of magnitudes 1 each is 180º, then the value of their dot product is

32. If the velocity of a particle as a function of time is given by . At what value of time (in seconds) will its acceleration be 2 m/s²?

1. 6 s
2. 4 s
3. 2 s
4. 8 s

33. Two forces P and Q are oriented such that the angle between them is 180º. The magnitude of their resultant is

34. An object moves with speeds v₁, v₂ and v₃along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3AB, then average speed of the object will be:

35. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the ground starts climbing the rope hand over up to a height l. From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the time he is hanging at rest at a height l, how much work done on the man by the rope?


1. 0
2. Mgl
3. –Mgl
4. It depends on how fast the man goes up.

36. A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 20 N be acted on the body so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 40 J after moving 4m

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 120°

37. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300 % then percentage change in momentum will be

1. 100%
2.150%
3.265%
4. 73.2%

38. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v₀. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v₀is (Take g = 10 m s^-2)

1. 28 m s^-1
2. 10 ms^-1
3. 14 m s^-1
4. 20 m s^-1

39. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = a x^3/2, where a = 5 m/s². What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m.

1. 25 J
2. 50 J
3. 75 J
4. 40 J

40. If a body falls freely under gravity from rest, what fraction of its initial potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy when it has fallen to half of its initial height?

41. Kinetic energy, with any reference, must be

1. negative
2. zero
3. positive
4. Both (1) and (3)

42. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient of restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is

43. Maximum energy transfer for an elastic collision will occur if one body is at rest when

1. m₁ = m₂
2. m₁ = 2m₂
3. m₁ >> m₂
4. m₂ >> m₁

44. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep, meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in figure. Their velocities and time to reach the ground are and  respectively, then,


Which of the above relation(s) is/are correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c) 
2. (b) and (c) 
3. (c) and (d) 
4. (b) and (d)

45. A spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored is E. If the spring is stretches by 20 cm, the potential energy store will be

1. 2E
2. 4E              
3. 8E
4. 16E

48. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

49. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions ?

1. Ga, In, Tl
2. N, O, F
3. Na, Mg, Al
4. V, Cr, Mn

50. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65)

51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

1. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
2. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3. Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size)
4. B <C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

52. The elements having greatest difference between its first and second ionization enthalpy is :

1. Ca
2. K
3. Sc
4. Ba

53. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s

d > f

54. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹
2. ns² np³
3. ns² np⁴
4. ns² np ^1-6

55. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C

56. Match List 1 and List 2

          List 1                                List 2

A.         37                                   I. S block
B.         60                                  II. P block
C.         53                                 III. D block
D.         78                                  IV. F block

1. A-I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A-I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A-II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III

57. Paulings electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting

1. Polarity of the molecules
2. Position in the emf series
3. Coordination in numbers
4. Dipole moments

58. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and Be
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and Al

59. The volume of 80% sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) by weight (density = 1.80gmL^-1) required to prepare 1L of 0.2M H₂SO₄ is

1. 14.7 mL
2. 29.4 mL
3. 6.8 mL
4. 13.60 mL

60. Calculate the amount of oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄.2H₂O) required to obtain 250 mL og semimolar solution.

1. 15.75 g
2. 1.575 g
3. 157.5 g
4. None of these

61. 02 x 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is

1. 0.001 M
2. 0.01 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M

62. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute solution of the gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant for the gas at 298 K is 100 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in one litre of water is

1. 0.555
2. 5.55
3. 0.0555
4. 55.5

63. Nalorphene (C₁₉H₂₁NO₃) similar to morphine, is used to combat withdrawal symptoms in narcotic users. Dose to nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 x 10-3 m aqueous solution required for the above dose is?

1. 3.2 g
2. 0.2 g
3. 5.1 g
4. 7.3 g

64. The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A,B,C) in water are 145, 2 x 10^-5 and 35 kbar respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order

1. B > A > C
2. B > C > A
3. A > C > B
4. A > B > C

65. The molality of 648 g of pure water is

1. 36 m
2. 55.5 m
3. 3.6 m
4. 5.55 in

66. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) of moles of solute/Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) of moles of component/Moles of the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component/Mass of solution = (Z)

67. How many Na+ ions are present in 100mL of 0.25M of NaCl solution?

1. 0.025 x 10²³
2. 1.505 x 10²²
3. 15 x 10²²
4. 2.5 x 10²³

68. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100mL water at 298K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5atm and KH = 1.4 x 10-3 mol/L/atm?

1. 22.4 mg
2. 22.4 g
3. 2.24 g
4. 2.24 mg

69. 1g of H₂ has same number of molecules as in :

1. 14 g of N₂
2. 18g of H₂O
3. 16g of CO
4. 44g of CO₂

70. Given that the abundance of isotopes Fe⁵⁴ , Fe⁵⁶ , Fe⁵⁷ , are 5% , 90%, 5% respectively. The atomic mass of Fe is

1. 55.75
2. 55.95
3. 55.85
4. 56.05

71. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Mg₃(PO₄)₂ will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

1. 0.02
2. 3.125 x 10^-2
3. 1.25 x 10^-2
4. 2.5 x 10^-2

72. How many number of molecules and atoms respectively are present in 2.8 L of a diatomic gas at STP ?

1. 023 x 10²³, 7.5 x 10²³
2. 023 x 10²³, 15 x 10²²
3. 5 x 10²², 15 x 10²²
4. 15 x 10²², 7.5 x 10²³

73. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N₃^– ion is

1. 2.1 N_A
2. 4.2 N_A
3. 1.6 N_A
4. 3.2 N_A

74. The number of Oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO₂ is

1. 1.2 x 10²³
2. 6 x 10²²
3. 6 x 10²³
4. 12 x 10²³

75. The percentage of C, H, and N in an organic compound are 40% , 13.3 % and 46.7% respectively then the empirical formula is

1. C₃H₁₃N₃
2. CH₂N
3. CH₄N
4. CH₆N

76. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5 % by mass ( atomic mass of Se = 78.4 amu). Then, the minimum molecular mass of enzyme which contains 2 Se atoms is

1. 1.568 x 10⁴
2. 1.568 x 10⁷
3. 3.136 x 10⁴
4. 3.136 x 10³

77. 011 x 10²² molecules are removed from a vessel containing 1500 cc of Nitrogen at STP. How many moles are remaining ?

1. 0.025
2. 0.017
3. 0.5
4. 1

78. Which has maximum no. of molecules ?

1. 7g N₂
2. 2g H₂
3. 16g NO₂
4.  16g O₂

79. The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and paranitrophenols is

1. Steam distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallisation

80. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO, while testing for halogens. By doing so, it:

1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN formed
2. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. Increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. Increases the concentration of NO ions

81. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect:

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Chlorine
4. All of these

82. The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

1. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
2. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
3. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
4. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

83. When n-butane is treated with chlorine, how many monochloro products are formed?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

84. Glycerine can be purified by

1. vacuum distillation
2. simple distillation
3. steam distillation
4. fractional distillation.

85. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in

1. NH₂CONHNH₂.HCl
2. NH₂NH₂.HCl
3. NH₂CONH₂
4. C₆H₅NHNH₂. HCl

86. Inductive effect involves

1. displacement of σ-electrons resulting in polarisation
2. displacement of π-electrons resulting in polarisation
3. delocalisation of σ-electrons
4. delocalisation of π-electrons.

87. Point out the incorrect statement about resonance?

1. Resonance structures should have equal energy.
2. In resonance structures, the constituent atoms must be in the same position.
3. In resonance structures, there should not be same number of electron pairs.
4. Resonance structures should differ only in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.

88. How many sigma and pi bond are present in benzaldehyde?

1. 19σ and 4π bond
2. 20σ and 3π bond
3. 18σ and 3π bond
4. 20σ and 4π bond

89. IUPAC name of the compound


1. 2,3-dimethylheptane
2. 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
3. 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
4. 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane.

90. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

1. CH₃-CHCI-COOH
2. H-C≡C – Cl
3. CICH = CHCI
4. CICH₂– CH₂CI

BOTANY

91. Before cells enter into M phase from G₂ phase,

1. cyclin M is degraded
2. CDK binds to G₁ cyclin
3. CDK binds to M cyclin
4. CDK becomes inactive.

92. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because

1. crossing over does not occur
2. karyokinesis cannot occur
3. chromosomes do not replicate
4. not all the chromosomes can form homologous pairs.

93. Which of the following division will help a diploid female lizard to produce a diploid offspring that are genetically identical to herself?

1. Meiosis only
2. Mitosis only
3. First mitosis, then meiosis
4. First meiosis, then mitosis

94. Which of the following correctly differentiates the reproductive strategies of Fucus and Volvox?

1. Volvox exhibits oogamy, whereas Fucus follows isogamy.
2. Both Fucus and Volvox produce motile gametes of equal size.
3. Fucus exhibits oogamy with distinct male and female gametes, while Volvox may show isogamy or anisogamy.
4. Both Fucus and Volvox undergo anisogamy, producing non-motile gametes.

95. In which of the following plants does the gametophyte remain nutritionally dependent on the sporophyte throughout its life cycle?

1. Polytrichum and Funaria
2. Cedrus and Pteris
3. Cedrus only
4. Pteris and Funaria

96. Assertion: Porphyra is an edible marine brown alga.
       Reason: Brown algae is popularly know as kelp.

1. A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but reason is true.

97. The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to replace cotton and used as a fuel is

1. Marchantia
2. Riccia
3. Sphagnum
4. Funaria

98. Select the incorrect statement with respect to given type of life cycle.


1. A Meiosis occurs at the time of spore formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed-bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many bryophytes and pteridophytes.

99. Compared to the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

1. Larger but have smaller sex organs
2. Larger and have large sex organs
3. Smaller and have smaller sex organs
4. Smaller but have larger sex organs

100. If egg of an organism has 20 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid cell of same organism have in pachytene (x), diakinesis (y) and anaphase-l (z)?

1. x = 40pg ; y = 40pg z = 80pg
2. x = 80pg y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
3. x = 40pg ; y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
4. x = 80pg ; y = 40pg ; z = 40pg

101. (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.
       (ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
      (iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
      (iv) Bryophytes shows Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
How many statement/s is/are correct?

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four

102. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

1. Diplontic life cycle
2. Members of kingdom-Plantae
3. Mode of nutrition
4. Multiplication by fragmentation

103. The plant body of Funaria is

1. completely sporophyte
2. predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
3. completely gametophyte
4. predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte

104. The pyrenoids are made up of

1. proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
2. core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
3. core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
4. core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.

105. Microtubules are the constituents of

1. centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
2. centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
3. cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
4. spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia.

106. Elaters are hygroscopic structures involved in the dispersal of spores in _________.

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Dryopteris
4. Funaria

107. Match the plant with gametophyte nature


1. A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii)
2. A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii)
3. A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
4. A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i)

108. Assertion (A): In Spirogyra, gametes are non-motile.
       Reason (R): Fertilization occurs through fragmentation.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

109. This is an incorrect statement

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function, and behaviour
2. In oomycetes, female gametes are smaller and motile, while male gametes are larger and non-motile
3. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

110. Vegetative reproduction in mosses take place by budding in the

1. Primary protonema
2. Thallus
3. Secondary protonema
4. Sporophyte

111. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of _________and an outer layer of _________

1. Cellulose, starch
2. Pectose, cellulose
3. Pectose, algin
4. Cellulose, pectose

112. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

1. Laminaria and Sargassum
2. Gelidium and Gracilaria
3. Anabena and Volvox
4. Chlorella and Spirulina

113. Which class of enzymes catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group?

1. Oxidoreductases
2. Transferases
3. Hydrolases
4. Lyases

114. Which of the following is true about enzyme specificity?

1. Enzymes can catalyze any reaction
2. Enzymes act on a broad range of sub-strate
3. Enzymes are highly specific to their substrate
4. Enzymes lose specificity at high temperatures

115. The Michaelis Menten constant (Km) is a measure of:

1.Enzyme efficiency
2. Substrate affinity
3. Maximum reaction rate
4. Enzyme concentration

116. An enzyme becomes denatured when:

1. It binds to a substrate
2. Its temperature exceeds the optimum range
3. Its substrate concentration increases
4. It interacts with a co-enzyme

117. Allosteric enzymes differ from typical enzymes because they:

1. Have a single active site
2. Follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics strictly
3. Are regulated by molecules binding at a site other than the active site
4. Are always inhibited by their substrates

118. In the Lock and Key model of enzyme action:

1. The enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate
2. The substrate and enzyme have a rigid, complementary fit
3. The enzyme is denatured after binding
4. The substrate is an inhibitor

119. Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity?

1. Temperature
2. pH
3. Substrate concentration
4. Color of the solution

120. NAD and NADP are considered as

1. apoenzyme and co factor
2. co enzyme and co factor
3. both as co enzyme
4. apoenzyme and holoenzyme

121. Which of the following results from the combination of an apoenzyme and a coenzyme?

1. Enzyme-substrate complex
2.Conjugate enzymes
3. Co factor
4. Enzyme-product complex

122. How many nucleotides are present in the segment if DNA segment contains 100 Adenine and 100 cytosine ?

1. 200
2. 100
3. 400
4. 500.

123. Which of the following terms describes the blocking of an enzyme’s action by obstructing its active site?

1. Allosteric inhibition
2. Feedback inhibition
3. Competitive inhibition
4. Non-competitive inhibition

124. ATP is a

1.vitamin 
2. nucleotide
3. nucleoside
4. nucleic acid

125. Name the nucleotide which contains only ribose sugar and not deoxyribose?

1. Cytosine
2. Uracil
3. Thymine
4. Adenine

126. Which of the following is NOT the function of nucleotides?

1. Works as chemical messenger
2. Co-enzymes
3. Co-factors
4. Energy carries

127. Statement I: DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar.
        Statement II: The nitrogenous base thymine is present in RNA, while uracil is present in DNA.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

128. The coenzyme NAD is derived from which of the following biomolecules?

1. Amino acid
2. Nucleotide
3. Carbohydrate
4. Lipid

129. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer:
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

130. Assertion (A): The catalytic activity of ribozymes is due to their protein component.
        Reason (R): Ribozymes are DNA

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

131. Assertion (A): Proteins are denatured at high temperatures, losing their biological activity.
     Reason (R): High temperatures disrupt the hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions stabilizing the protein’s tertiary structure.

Options:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

132. Which of the following lipids is a major component of cell membranes?

1.Triglycerides   
2. Phospholipids
3.Steroids
4. Waxes

133. The ester linkage in triglycerides is formed between:

1. Glycerol and amino acids
2. Glycerol and fatty acids
3. Fatty acids and phosphate groups
4. Glycerol and nitrogenous bases

134. Which of the following lipids is NOT derived from fatty acids?

1. Phospholipids
2. Triglycerides
3. Steroids
4. Waxes

135. Which amino acid is known as the simplest amino acid due to its side chain being a single hydrogen atom?

1. Alanine
2. Glycine
3. Valine
4. Serine

ZOOLOGY

136. Seminal plasma of human is rich in

1. Fructose and certain enzymes, poor in Ca²⁺
2. Fructose, Ca²⁺ and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, Ca²⁺ but no enzymes
4. Glucose, certain enzymes but no Ca²⁺

137. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 300 million spermatozoa?

1. 50 million
2. 100 million
3. 150 million
4. 300 million

138. Egg is liberated from ovary in which state

1. Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase
2. Primary oocyte arrested at metaphase
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at prophase
4. Primary oocyte arrested at prophase

139. Arrange the following sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis
(i) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgen
(ii) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
(iii) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
(iv) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
(v) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (v), (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
2. (iii), (i), (iv), (v), (ii)
3. (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
4. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii), (v)

140. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

1. Secondary spermatocyte
2. Primary polar body
3. Spermatogonia
4. Spermatid

141. Meiotic division of the primary oocyte is completed

1. After zygote formation
2. At puberty
3. At the time of fusion of sperm with an ovum
4. At embryonic stage

142. Select the correct set of names for the parts A, B, C, D


1. A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
2. A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle, D-Bulbourethral gland
3. A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
4. A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Cowper’s gland, D-Prostate

143. Mammary duct is formed by a combination of

1. Mammary alveoli
2. Mammary ampulla
3. Mammary lobes
4. Mammary tubules

144. The gland which secretes a clear mucus which lubricates the penis is

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. Cowper’s gland
4. All of these

145. The difference between primary follicle and secondary follicle in the human ovary is

1. The primary follicle contains the primary oocyte whereas the secondary follicle contains the secondary oocyte
2. The primary follicle contains an oocyte and the 1^st polar body whereas the secondary follicle contains an oocyte and the 2^nd polar body
3. The oocyte in the primary follicle is diploid whereas the oocyte in the secondary follicle is haploid
4. In primary follicle, the oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of cells whereas in secondary follicle the oocyte is surrounded by several layers of granulosa cells

146. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the development of ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle?

1. LH
2. FSH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone

147. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option
Assertion: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5˚ F) lower than the normal internal body temperature necessary for spermatogenesis

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Assertion is false but reason is true

148. Observe the given diagram and select the option that correctly identifies the labelled part along with its characteristic


1, 1 – Ampulla – Site of blastocyst implantation
2. 2 – Ovary – Site of oogenesis
3. 3 – Cervix – Secrete hCG
4. 4 – Uterus – Site of fertilization

149. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option
Assertion: A drop in temperature does not affect spermatogenesis
Reason: During temperature drop the smooth muscles contracts and bring the testes closer to the pelvic cavity.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Assertion is false but reason is true

150. The cells which secrete androgens are:

1. Sertoli cells
2. Interstitial cells
3. Leydig cells
4. Both 2 and 3

151. Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of

1. Prostate and urethra
2. Prostate and vas deferens
3. Prostate and Cowper’s gland
4. Vas deferens and testis

152. Match the following


1. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
2. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
4. A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(iv)

153. Cluster of cells in mammary lobes is known as

1. Mammary duct
2. Ampulla
3. Tubules
4. Alveoli

154. The correct sequence of spermatogenic stages leading to the formation of sperms in males is

1. Spermatogonia – spermatocytes – spermatids – sperms
2. Spermatids – spermatocytes – spermatogonia – sperms
3. Spermatogonia – spermatids – spermatocytes – sperms
4. Spermatocytes – spermatogonia – spermatids – sperms

155. Assertion: Oogonia starts division and enters into prophase I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocyte.
         Reason: Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells.

1. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
4. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

156. Graafian follicle contains

1. Primary oocyte
2. Ovum
3. Secondary oocyte
4. Polar body

157. Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum?

1. Primordial follicle
2. ⁠Primary follicle
3. ⁠Secondary follicle
4. ⁠Tertiary follicle

158. In spermatogenesis, a primary spermatocyte produce four similar sperms while in oogenesis a primary oocyte forms

1. One ovum
2. Three ovum and one polar body
3. Two ovum and two polar body
4. One ovum and 2-3 polar body

159. Select the incorrect statement regarding basement membrane.

1. They are cellular membrane, epithelial tissue rest on it
2. Found between epithelial tissue and connective tissue
3. Useful materials diffused through basement membrane
4. Provides structural support and act as selective barrier

160. When bones are treated with HCl or HNO3, the result will be

1. Dried bone
2. Decalcified bone
3. Bone marrow
4. Ligaments

161. Select the correct pair.

1. Tendon – yellow elastic fibre
2. Adipose – dense connective tissue
3. Areolar – softest tissue
4. Chondrocytes – Cartilage cell

162. Short, cube shaped, nucleus at the center of cell, having secretory property.

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Simple cuboidal epithelium
3. Simple columnar epithelium
4. Simple ciliated epithelium

163. Statement I: Blood contains plasma and formed elements.
         Statement II: Formed elements consist of erythrocytes, leucocytes, platelets and heparin

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

164. Which of the following are found abundant in epithelia of urinary bladder?

1. Hemidesmosomes
2. Tight junction
3. Desmosomes
4. Gap junction

165. Select the correct option for Smooth muscle.

1. Striated, branched, voluntary
2. Striated, involuntary, single nucleus
3. Unstriated, single nucleus, unbranched
4. Spindle shaped, branched, involuntary

166. Select the correct statements.
I) Lining of Inner surface of body cavities are derived from endoderm
II) Epithelial tissue are considered avascular
III) Columnar and cuboidal cells are secretory in function

Options:
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. II only
4. I, II and III

167. Select the correct pair:

1. Axon – single, long process, carries nerve impulse to axon hillock
2. Cell body – contains Nissl’s granules responsible for protein synthesis
3. Myelin sheath – found on dendrites, provide protection for nerve fibre
4. Axon terminal – receive incoming nerve impulse from another neuron

168. Match the following:
1. Simple squamous – a) ventricles of brain
2. Simple cuboidal – b) wall of bowman’s capsule
3. Simple columnar – c) PCT of nephrons of kidney
4. Simple ciliated – d) lining of gall bladder and bile duct

Options:
1. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
2. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
3.1- d, 2-b, 3-a,4-c
4. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

169. Select the incorrect statements regarding neuron.

1. Structural and functional unit of nervous tissue
2. Non-excitable cell
3. Developed from ectoderm as well as mesoderm
4. Consist of cyton and neurites

170. Skeletal muscle cell differ from cardiac muscle cell in having _______

1. Peripherally located nucleus
2. Different myofibrils
3. Fewer mitochondria
4. All of above

171. Assertion (A): Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across tissue
        Reason (R): Tight junctions keep adjacent cells together

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R false
4. A is false but R is true

172. Skeletal muscle are found on body walls, Smooth muscle are found on dermis of skin.

1. True for skeletal muscle, false for smooth muscle.
2. False for skeletal muscle, true for smooth muscle.
3. True for both
4. False for both

173. Select the wrongly matched pair.

1. Unicellular gland – Goblet cell
2. Mucous gland – Serous cell
3. Endocrine gland – Thyroid gland
4. Exocrine gland – Salivary gland

174. Which of the following are not correct regarding connective tissue?
i. Most abundant and widely distributed animal and plant tissue
ii. Connect and support other tissue
iii. Forms internal and external lining of many organs
iv.Blood is an example of specialised connective tissue

Options:
1. I, II, III
2. II, III, IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV

175. (A) is composed of interconnected cells with (B) which appear as dark line called (C)

1. A- Smooth muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- myofibrils
2. A- Cardiac muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- intercalated disc
3. A- Skeletal muscle, B- Multi-nucleus, C- Sarcolemma
4. A- Smooth muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- intercalated disc

176. Compound epithelium play major role in

1. Secretion
2. Absorption
3. Support
4. Protection

177. Adipose tissue is a type of

1. Epithelial tissue
2. Connective tissue
3. Nervous tissue
4. Muscular tissue

178. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna is also found in

1. Ear ossicles
2. Nails
3. Hairs
4. Tip of the nose

179. Epithelial cells are connected to basement membrane by

1. Desmosomes
2. Hemidesmosomes
3. Adhesive belts
4. Tight junction

180. Identify the given tissue.


1. Areolar tissue
2. Adipose tissue
3. Bone
4. Cartilage