NEET TEST SERIES 162 BIOLOGY

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1. Change over time within an evolutionary lineage (phyletic change).

a) is the only important evolutionary- process.
b) rarely occurs without geographic separation of populations.
c) is the main means by which new species arise.
d) cannot account for the proliferation of species.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

2. Read the following statements.
(i) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(ii) Echinoderms are triploblaslic and coelomale animals.
(iii) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(iv) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(v) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (ii).(iii) and (v) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) and (v)are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i). (iv) and (v) are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

3. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(a) Partial pressure of CO₂ can interfere with O₂ binding with haemoglobin
(b) Higher H⁺ cone, in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Low Pco₂ in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(d) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O₂

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

4. Arrange the following human ancestors in ascending order, from earliest to latest:
A. Homo erectus
B Australopithecus
C Homo hahilis
D. Homo neanderthelensis

(a) A-B-C-D
(b) B-A-C-D
(c) (c) B-C-A-D
(d) D-C-A-B

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

5. When CO7 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

6. Which of the following is a single U shaped bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull?

(a) Hyoid
(b) Malleus
(c) Sacrum
(d) Scapula

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

7. Which endocrine gland plays important role in immunity?

(a) Spleen
(b) Thymus
(c) Pineal
(d) Adrenal medulla

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

8. Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is false?

(a) It is secreted by -cells of Langerhans.
(b) It acts antagonistically to insulin.
(c) It decreases blood sugar level.
(d) The gland responsible for its secretion is heterocrine gland.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

9. Select the correct match of the types of organs given in column I with their role in excretion given in column II.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

10. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineered living organism?

(a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

11. Statement 1: Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level to prolactin.
Statement II: Prolactin stimulates the release of gonadotrophins. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

12. What is mode of bacterial resistance against antibiotics?

(a) Development of thick mucilaginous layer
(b) Alteration of cell membrane
(c) Mutation in bacteria
(d) All the above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

13. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements
(i) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal.
(ii) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.
(iii) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.
(iv) Pure DNA can be visualised directly by exposing to UV radiation. Choose correct answer from the options given below

(a) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

15. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from

(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) AV node
(c) chordae tendinae
(d) SA node

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

16. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(a) Lecithin – A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(c) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(d) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

17. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary bladder is

(a) polyurea
(b) micturition
(c) mellitus
(d) menstruation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

18. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?

(a) WBC and serum
(b) all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

19. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in:

(a) More concentrated urine
(b) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(c) No urine formation
(d) More diluted urine

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

20. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a) myofibril
(b) sarcomere
(c) Z-band
(d) cross bridges

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)

None

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